CRCT REVIEW 3

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	What word describes the mammals, fish, birds, and plants that live in an environment?
a.	abiotic	c.	the biosphere	
b.	the population	d.	biotic	

____	2.	A community is several species of animals interacting, while a population is
a.	members of one species in an area.	
b.	the biotic and abiotic elements of an area.	
c.	the nonliving elements of a habitat.	
d.	a single organism.	

____	3.	The five levels of organization in the environment, from first to fifth level are
a.	organism, population, biosphere, ecosystem, community.	
b.	organism, population, biotic elements, abiotic elements, community.	
c.	organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere.	
d.	organism, population, biosphere, abiotic elements, ecology.	

____	4.	Which of the following is abiotic?
a.	a gar	c.	grass	
b.	an alligator	d.	water	

____	5.	Organisms that can make their own food from sunlight are called
a.	decomposers.	c.	producers.	
b.	consumers.	d.	carnivores.	

____	6.	Grass is eaten by a prairie dog. The prairie dog is eaten by a coyote. This is an example of
a.	an abiotic element.	c.	a herbivore.	
b.	an omnivore.	d.	a food chain.	

____	7.	One food web arrow goes from a prairie dog to a coyote, showing that
a.	the coyote is bigger.	c.	the prairie dog eats the coyote.	
b.	the coyote eats the prairie dog.	d.	the prairie dog is a producer.	

____	8.	Without wolves, Yellowstone Park had
a.	too many elk.	c.	too many rabbits.	
b.	too much grass.	d.	too many cows.	

____	9.	The largest population an environment can support is its
a.	carrying capacity.	c.	population.	
b.	limiting factor.	d.	symbiosis.	

____	10.	One type of competition involves individuals competing for resources. The other involves competition between different
a.	organisms.	c.	environments.	
b.	populations.	d.	relationships.	

____	11.	Young wasps are eating the tomato hornworm that is their host. What is this an example of?
a.	commensalism	c.	parasitism	
b.	mutualism	d.	competition	

____	12.	A bird eats a worm. Who is the predator?
a.	the worm	c.	both the bird and the worm	
b.	the bird	d.	neither the bird nor the worm	

____	13.	Rocks, temperature, and water are what part of the environment?
a.	biotic	c.	population	
b.	abiotic	d.	living	

____	14.	What do several different populations living together make?
a.	a biosphere	c.	a community	
b.	an organism	d.	an ecosystem	

____	15.	Which is an example of an abiotic element changing an area?
a.	introducing a new type of grass	c.	two species of birds competing	
b.	water flooding the area	d.	algae growing on crabgrass	

____	16.	Grass that gains energy from the sun is an example of a
a.	consumer.	c.	decomposer.	
b.	parasite.	d.	producer.	

____	17.	A diagram with arrows showing energy flow from grass, to a rabbit, to a fox is
a.	an energy pyramid.	c.	a food chain.	
b.	a food web.	d.	a population chart.	

____	18.	In a food web, arrows point in just one direction because they show
a.	which animal is bigger.	
b.	which animals are related.	
c.	how energy goes to the animal that is eating.	
d.	how energy goes to the animal that is eaten.	

____	19.	After one species disappears, the other species in the ecosystem
a.	benefit.	c.	die.	
b.	are thrown out of balance.	d.	are unaffected.	

____	20.	Limiting factors determine an area’s carrying capacity because
a.	the number of animals is limited.	c.	animals need resources to survive.	
b.	ecosystems are small.	d.	the number of animals is unlimited.	

____	21.	Two members of the same species fight over who gets a certain food. Members of different species try to take over a certain nesting area. These are both examples of
a.	community.	c.	mutualism.	
b.	competition.	d.	commensalism.	

____	22.	In which type of symbiosis do organisms help each other?
a.	parasitism	c.	community	
b.	mutualism	d.	commensalism	

____	23.	What is the lowest level of environmental organization that three male egrets would all belong in together?
a.	individual organism	c.	community	
b.	population	d.	ecosystem	

____	24.	If scientists are studying the egrets, herons, marsh crabs, and cordgrass, but not the water or rocks in a salt marsh, what level of organization would they be studying?
a.	individual organism	c.	community	
b.	population	d.	ecosystem	

____	25.	An environmental study reporting on the way temperature, water quality, and minerals affect the animals in a salt marsh would be considering which level of organization?
a.	individual organism	c.	community	
b.	population	d.	ecosystem	

____	26.	The plants a ladybug lives on, the aphids the ladybug eats, and the birds that would eat the ladybug are all
a.	biotic elements of an ecosystem.	c.	producers.	
b.	predators.	d.	abiotic elements of an ecosystem.	

____	27.	Herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores are all
a.	decomposers.	c.	predators.	
b.	producers.	d.	consumers.	

____	28.	Animals that eat a variety of meats, fruits, and vegetables are
a.	producers.	c.	omnivores.	
b.	carnivores.	d.	herbivores.	

____	29.	A scientist studying the way egrets, herons, and crabs interact, who is not interested in abiotic factors such as the rocks, water, and temperature, is studying what level of environmental organization?
a.	population	c.	community	
b.	ecosystem	d.	biosphere	

____	30.	Rocks, temperature, and water are what kind of things?
a.	biotic	c.	population	
b.	abiotic	d.	living	

____	31.	What level of organization comes after population?
a.	biosphere	c.	community	
b.	organism	d.	ecosystem	

____	32.	What word describes a community of organisms and their environment?
a.	individuals	c.	population	
b.	ecosystem	d.	community	

____	33.	What living things make food from sunlight?
a.	consumers	c.	decomposers	
b.	parasites	d.	producers	

____	34.	What happened to other living things when the wolves no longer lived in Yellowstone?
a.	They were better off.	c.	They died.	
b.	They were out of balance.	d.	They were not changed.	

____	35.	When is food a limiting factor?
a.	when a population is large	c.	when a population is small	
b.	when there’s too much food	d.	when there’s too much water	

____	36.	What is an animal that catches and eats another animal called?
a.	prey	c.	producer	
b.	predator	d.	herbivore	

____	37.	In which relationship do living things help each other?
a.	parasitism	c.	organism	
b.	mutualism	d.	predator	

____	38.	Coyotes prey on prairie dogs. In order for the prairie dog population to survive, how many prairie dogs are needed compared to coyotes?
a.	fewer prairie dogs than coyotes	
b.	many more prairie dogs than coyotes	
c.	about the same number of prairie dogs as coyotes	
d.	There is no relationship between the number of prairie dogs and coyotes.	

____	39.	What kind of elk do wolves kill?
a.	the strong and healthy	c.	the old, injured, and diseased	
b.	the smart and quick	d.	the energetic and fast	

____	40.	When there is a lot of pollution, rain can be acidic, harming plants and animals. What is this an example of?
a.	competition between a population and a community	
b.	a mutualistic type of symbiosis	
c.	an abiotic factor affecting an ecosystem	
d.	an individual affecting a community	

____	41.	Bears eat fruits such as berries and animals such as fish. They hibernate in the winter. They give birth to live young. Which of these terms applies to bears?
a.	They are decomposers.	
b.	They are at the bottom of the energy pyramid.	
c.	They have a mutualistic relationship with berries.	
d.	They are consumers.	

____	42.	If you made a chart showing all the organisms living in the local lake, with arrows drawn between the various organisms showing who ate what, what kind of chart would you have made?
a.	energy pyramid	c.	food web	
b.	food chain	d.	ecosystem chart	

____	43.	Two lionesses are fighting over a fresh kill. What type of competition is this?
a.	predator/prey	
b.	competition within a population	
c.	competition between species in a community	
d.	competition between parasite and host	

____	44.	Suppose there were a bird that always sat on a horse's back and ate the insects that would bite the horse. What would this be an example of?
a.	mutualism	c.	competition	
b.	parasitism	d.	commensalism	

____	45.	When a parasitic worm invades an animal, who is the host?
a.	the producer	c.	the decomposer	
b.	the animal	d.	the worm	

____	46.	As loggers take more trees out of a forest, there are fewer places for a certain type of bird to build a nest. What is this an example of?
a.	a predator attacking prey	
b.	the forest's carrying capacity becoming smaller	
c.	a food web becoming smaller	
d.	a symbiotic relationship	

Use the image below to answer the following questions.

____	47.	The arrows on the food web show that
a.	prairie dogs eat grass.	c.	squirrels eat grass.	
b.	deer eat prairie dogs.	d.	squirrels eat coyotes.	

____	48.	Three organisms on the food web have arrows pointing away from them and no arrows pointing toward them. They are
a.	omnivores.	c.	decomposers.	
b.	herbivores.	d.	producers.	

____	49.	Three organisms on the food web have arrows pointing toward them but no arrows pointing away from them. This is because
a.	they make their own food.	c.	nothing shown eats them.	
b.	they give energy to others.	d.	they need no energy.	

____	50.	What does the arrow between the grasshopper and the coyote represent?
a.	energy flowing from producers to consumers	
b.	energy flowing from consumers to producers	
c.	energy flowing from the coyote to the grasshopper	
d.	energy flowing from the grasshopper to the coyote	

____	51.	How do most animals get the carbon they need?
a.	through photosynthesis	c.	by eating plants	
b.	through respiration	d.	through transpiration	

____	52.	Which of the following bacteria break down organic matter and return carbon dioxide and water to the environment?
a.	combustion	c.	nitrogen fixation	
b.	transpiration	d.	decomposition	

____	53.	Why do organisms need nitrogen?
a.	to transport nutrients	c.	to transport wastes	
b.	to build proteins and DNA	d.	to regulate temperature	

____	54.	Most animals get nitrogen from
a.	the atmosphere.	c.	performing nitrogen fixation.	
b.	the soil.	d.	eating other organisms.	

____	55.	Primary succession may begin in an area composed of
a.	fertile soil.	c.	bare rock.	
b.	farm crops.	d.	mosses and lichens.	

____	56.	A forest growing back after a forest fire is an example of
a.	primary succession.	c.	nitrogen fixation.	
b.	secondary succession.	d.	condensation.	

____	57.	What effect does biodiversity have on a forest?
a.	It makes destruction by insects impossible.	
b.	It makes primary succession more likely.	
c.	It makes species less likely to survive.	
d.	It makes destruction by insects less likely.	

____	58.	During what process is rock slowly transformed into soil?
a.	photosynthesis	c.	primary succession	
b.	nitrogen fixation	d.	secondary succession	

____	59.	Which of the following can cause nitrogen fixation?
a.	combustion	c.	fossil fuels	
b.	forest fire	d.	lightning	

____	60.	Which would most likely be a pioneer species?
a.	conifers	c.	crab grass	
b.	lichens	d.	hardwoods	

____	61.	Why is nitrogen important to living things?
a.	It transports food.	
b.	It changes substances to simpler molecules.	
c.	It builds new cells.	
d.	It cools the body.	

____	62.	How does secondary succession differ from primary succession?
a.	Secondary succession takes place on bare rocks.	
b.	Secondary succession occurs in an area that has soil.	
c.	Secondary succession begins with lichens.	
d.	Secondary succession takes thousands of years.	

____	63.	Why is the carbon cycle important to living things?
a.	It transports the materials cells use for energy.	
b.	It converts nitrogen to a usable form.	
c.	It converts carbon from a liquid to gas.	
d.	It transports wastes in organisms.	

____	64.	What important function do bacteria in the soil perform?
a.	respiration	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	nitrogen fixation	d.	biodiversity	

____	65.	Which of the following statements about climax species is true?
a.	They are more vulnerable to disease than other species.	
b.	They disturb a mature community.	
c.	They grow slowly and are well-adapted to an environment.	
d.	They are harmful because they dominate a community.	

____	66.	A mature community always
a.	grows in a desert.	c.	has little biodiversity.	
b.	has well-adapted organisms.	d.	is destroyed by insects.	

____	67.	Which of the following statements about groundwater is true?
a.	It is an important part of the water cycle.	
b.	It is trapped inside rocks.	
c.	It is not involved in the water cycle.	
d.	It is formed by evaporation.	

____	68.	Which process does NOT release carbon dioxide into the environment?
a.	combustion	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	respiration	d.	decomposition	

____	69.	Which of the following statements about cycles of matter is true?
a.	Matter is lost in each cycle.	
b.	Human activity has little or no impact on cycles.	
c.	Each cycle involves evaporation and condensation.	
d.	Matter moves between the environment and living things.	

____	70.	What happens to most of the precipitation that falls to Earth’s surface?
a.	It falls directly into oceans.	
b.	It remains in ponds and lakes.	
c.	It seeps into underground rock formations.	
d.	It quickly evaporates into the atmosphere.	

____	71.	What is the first step in rock changing to soil?
a.	Insect remains make soil.	c.	Decomposing grasses create soil.	
b.	Acids from lichens break rocks up.	d.	Mosses replace lichens.	

____	72.	Which substance must be chemically transformed before it can be used by plants?
a.	oxygen gas	c.	nitrogen gas	
b.	carbon dioxide gas	d.	water vapor	

____	73.	Carbon from the environment becomes a part of living organisms through
a.	photosynthesis.	c.	transpiration.	
b.	respiration.	d.	decomposition.	

____	74.	The first plants to grow on abandoned farmland would be
a.	trees.	c.	conifers.	
b.	shrubs.	d.	weeds.	

____	75.	What do all organic molecules contain?
a.	oxygen	c.	water	
b.	nitrogen	d.	carbon	

____	76.	Why do living things need nitrogen?
a.	to build new cells	c.	to cool them off	
b.	to get rid of wastes	d.	to carry nutrients	

____	77.	Where can primary succession begin?
a.	in a place with only rocks	c.	in a place with crops	
b.	in a place with trees	d.	in a place with weeds	

____	78.	What plant will most likely grow first in secondary succession?
a.	pine tree	c.	crab grass	
b.	lichen	d.	hardwood tree	

____	79.	Which of these might be a climax species?
a.	the first species in an area	
b.	the first insects to eat lichens	
c.	the most common weeds in a farm field	
d.	the oldest trees in a forest	

____	80.	Which of the following best describes a plant that is suited to being a pioneer species?
a.	tall; produces few seeds	
b.	grows quickly; makes many seeds	
c.	fragile; cannot tolerate direct sunlight	
d.	grows slowly; seeds dispersed by animals	

____	81.	A desert that contains plants and animals that have been there for a long time is an example of
a.	the beginning of primary succession.	c.	a mature community.	
b.	a pioneer community.	d.	a lack of diversity.	

____	82.	Which of the following is an abiotic factor in a biome?
a.	the kinds of trees	c.	the average temperature	
b.	the number of insect species	d.	the mosses and algae	

____	83.	Which of the following is a biotic factor in a biome?
a.	the quality of soil	c.	the presence of ponds and lakes	
b.	the amount of rainfall	d.	the kinds of grasses	

____	84.	The base of the ocean’s food chains is formed by
a.	blue whales.	c.	plankton.	
b.	coral reefs.	d.	sargassums.	

____	85.	Which of the following is NOT a key abiotic factor in marine ecosystems?
a.	water temperature	c.	amount of sunlight	
b.	water depth	d.	amount of plankton	

____	86.	The place where the ocean meets the land is the
a.	intertidal zone.	c.	oceanic zone.	
b.	neritic zone.	d.	benthic zone.	

____	87.	The ocean floor, some parts of which get no sunlight, is the
a.	intertidal zone.	c.	oceanic zone.	
b.	neritic zone.	d.	benthic zone.	

____	88.	The area that contains the deep water of the open ocean and is where the sea floor drops sharply is the
a.	intertidal zone.	c.	oceanic zone.	
b.	neritic zone.	d.	benthic zone.	

____	89.	The area that has warm, sunlit water and is where the ocean floor begins to slope downward is the
a.	intertidal zone.	c.	oceanic zone.	
b.	neritic zone.	d.	benthic zone.	

____	90.	Which is NOT an example of how an organism adapts to living in fast-moving water?
a.	Algae attach to rocks.	c.	Fish live in mud.	
b.	Insects live under rocks.	d.	Tadpoles use suction disks.	

____	91.	Many plants can grow in the littoral zone of a lake because
a.	sunlight reaches its bottom.	c.	there are no animals.	
b.	there are no algae.	d.	there is both salt water and fresh water.	

____	92.	The main food for organisms in the deep-water zone is
a.	photosynthetic plankton.	c.	dead organisms from above.	
b.	live trout.	d.	water lilies.	

____	93.	Where does the open-water zone of a lake end?
a.	where the lakeshore begins	c.	above the littoral zone	
b.	beneath the deep-water zone	d.	as deep as sunlight reaches	

____	94.	How do wetlands help replenish underground water supplies?
a.	The water moves deeper into the ground.	
b.	The tree roots soak up water.	
c.	Wetlands do not soak up spring snow melt.	
d.	Wetlands do not feed into lakes and rivers.	

____	95.	An ecosystem with wet soil, willow trees, and orchids is likely
a.	a marsh.	c.	a forest.	
b.	a swamp.	d.	a pond.	

____	96.	A lake may become a forest when
a.	there is a severe drought.	
b.	a swamp becomes a marsh.	
c.	the lake fills with sediment over time.	
d.	water rarely enters the lake.	

____	97.	Which of the following is a biotic factor in a biome?
a.	kinds of birds	c.	types of rocks	
b.	amount of rainfall	d.	bodies of water	

____	98.	The speed of water is an important abiotic factor in a freshwater ecosystem because
a.	a tributary has different plants than a river.	
b.	faster water has a higher salt content.	
c.	animals must adapt so they are not washed away.	
d.	animals cannot live in fast-moving water.	

____	99.	One important abiotic factor in marine ecosystems is the
a.	amount of plankton.	c.	kinds of algae.	
b.	water depth.	d.	size of animals.	

____	100.	Most of the nutrients in a tropical rain forest are found in plants, so
a.	the rain forest soil is very rich.	c.	there are few animals in the rain forest.	
b.	there are few plants on the forest floor.	d.	the rain forest soil is poor in nutrients.	

____	101.	From where do plankton get food?
a.	small fish	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	insects	d.	whales	

____	102.	What may happen as sediment and decaying organisms build up in a pond?
a.	The pond may become a lake.	c.	The water may have more salt.	
b.	More fish may live in the pond.	d.	The pond may become a forest.	

____	103.	How can the littoral zone of a lake or pond be described?
a.	an area with no sunlight	
b.	an area with no animal life	
c.	an area with no plant life	
d.	an area closest to the edge of a lake or pond	

____	104.	Prairies, steppes, and pampas are types of
a.	chaparral.	c.	deserts.	
b.	tundra.	d.	grasslands.	

____	105.	Which of the following is a type of wetland characterized by plants hanging from tree branches?
a.	swamp	c.	estuary	
b.	marsh	d.	pond	

____	106.	Which of the following statements about savannas is true?
a.	During the wet season, savannas receive little rain.	
b.	Savanna inhabitants include large herbivores.	
c.	Savannas are characterized by steep mountains.	
d.	Savannas are rainy year-round.	

____	107.	A major abiotic factor that affects freshwater ecosystems is
a.	wildlife.	c.	how quickly water moves.	
b.	the amount of plankton.	d.	elevation.	

____	108.	The most biologically diverse biome is the
a.	swamp.	c.	temperate grassland.	
b.	tundra.	d.	tropical rain forest.	

____	109.	What is permafrost?
a.	dry desert soil	c.	ice on the tundra	
b.	muddy soil	d.	soil that is always frozen	

____	110.	Which of the following is a key abiotic factor in rivers?
a.	number of fish	c.	amount of salt	
b.	speed of water	d.	how animals adapt	

____	111.	Which of the following ocean animals need warm water to live?
a.	whales	c.	animals on the ocean floor	
b.	barnacles	d.	animals in coral reefs	

____	112.	How does a swamp differ from a marsh?
a.	A swamp has salt water.	c.	A swamp has many birds.	
b.	A swamp has trees.	d.	A swamp has very wet soil.	

____	113.	Which ocean temperature zone is the warmest?
a.	surface zone	c.	deep zone	
b.	thermocline	d.	littoral zone	

____	114.	Which of the following is NOT an intertidal area?
a.	sandy beach	c.	rocky shore	
b.	coral reef	d.	mudflat	

____	115.	What makes it possible for many animals to live in the polar ice ecosystem?
a.	cold air	c.	floating algae	
b.	large numbers of plankton	d.	coral reefs	

____	116.	Which lake zone is closest to the land’s edge?
a.	open-water zone	c.	littoral zone	
b.	deep-water zone	d.	tributary zone	

____	117.	Five major kinds of pollution include garbage, chemicals, high-powered wastes, 
a.	dirt, and grime.	c.	trash, and water.	
b.	gases, and noise.	d.	biodegradable, and volcanic wastes.	

____	118.	An organism that makes a home for itself in a new place is called a(n)
a.	endangered species.	c.	strange species.	
b.	new species.	d.	exotic species.	

____	119.	Advances in medicine and in farming have increased
a.	human population growth.	c.	renewable resources.	
b.	biodiversity.	d.	exotic species.	

____	120.	An example of habitat destruction is
a.	planting trees.	c.	clearing a tropical rain forest.	
b.	cleaning up oil spills.	d.	preventing nonpoint-source pollution.	

____	121.	Because conservation means using fewer natural resources and reducing wastes, it helps
a.	slow overpopulation and grow food.	
b.	prevent habitat destruction and reduce pollution.	
c.	prevent biodiversity and destroy species.	
d.	stop exotic species and create habitats.	

____	122.	Three ways to conserve resources are reducing, recycling, and
a.	renaming.	c.	reusing.	
b.	rebuilding.	d.	rethinking.	

____	123.	What is the preservation and wise use of natural resources called?
a.	conservation	c.	habitats	
b.	ecology	d.	biodiversity	

____	124.	Biodiversity can be maintained by protecting
a.	habitats.	c.	crops.	
b.	exotic species.	d.	factories.	

____	125.	The process of recovering valuable or useful materials from waste or scrap is called
a.	recycling.	c.	rebuilding.	
b.	renewing.	d.	reducing.	

____	126.	People can reduce waste by using products that are
a.	nonrenewable.	c.	biodegradable.	
b.	fossil fuels.	d.	exotic.	

____	127.	What can farmers use to prevent the harming of beneficial insects?
a.	spray insecticides	c.	new pesticides	
b.	natural pest control	d.	nonaerosol insecticides	

____	128.	Conserving wetlands and reducing deforestation will help
a.	protect habitats.	c.	eliminate exotic species.	
b.	stop air pollution.	d.	slow overpopulation.	

____	129.	We can reduce our need for fossil fuels by developing
a.	alternative energy sources.	c.	gasoline-powered cars.	
b.	natural gas lines.	d.	new oil sources.	

____	130.	The five major kinds of pollution are gases, noise, garbage, chemicals, and
a.	dirt.	c.	radiation.	
b.	odors.	d.	rain.	

____	131.	Using fewer natural resources and reducing wastes can help
a.	slow human population growth and increase diversity.	
b.	stop illness and create fossil fuels.	
c.	prevent biodiversity and destroy species.	
d.	end habitat destruction and reduce pollution.	

____	132.	The number and variety of organisms in a given area at a certain time is called
a.	overpopulation.	c.	biodiversity.	
b.	ecology.	d.	kingdoms.	

____	133.	A habitat is home to many organisms, and destroying a habitat affects
a.	biodiversity.	c.	resources.	
b.	pollution.	d.	weather.	

____	134.	The process of recovering valuable or useful materials from waste or scrap is called
a.	renewing.	c.	reliving.	
b.	recycling.	d.	reducing.	

____	135.	People can help protect habitats by conserving wetlands and
a.	using pesticides.	c.	reducing deforestation.	
b.	using nuclear power.	d.	not traveling.	

____	136.	Wastes that can catch fire, wear through metal, explode, or make people sick are
a.	pesticides.	c.	critical wastes.	
b.	hazardous wastes.	d.	garbage.	

____	137.	Using garbage and waste to make electricity is an example of
a.	resource recovery.	c.	electrical destruction.	
b.	resource renewal.	d.	electrical reuse.	

____	138.	Three ways to conserve resources are reusing, recycling, and
a.	rebuilding.	c.	reducing.	
b.	rethinking.	d.	renewing.	

____	139.	Human population growth has been made possible because of
a.	advances in farming and medicine.	
b.	unpolluted water and numerous landfills.	
c.	unlimited habitats and nuclear power.	
d.	increased industrial capacity and nuclear energy.	

____	140.	Pollution can affect humans by causing
a.	measles and mumps.	c.	colds and flu.	
b.	mumps and cancer.	d.	cancer and respiratory problems.	

____	141.	One way to kill harmful insects while protecting beneficial insects is to use
a.	spray pesticides.	c.	nonaerosol insecticides.	
b.	natural pesticides.	d.	inexpensive pesticides.	

____	142.	The Endangered Species Act protects individual species by
a.	reducing biodiversity.	
b.	forbidding harm to exotic species.	
c.	forbidding harm to endangered species.	
d.	developing recovery programs for exotic species.	

____	143.	Developing alternative energy sources will reduce our need for
a.	cars.	c.	fossil fuels.	
b.	electricity.	d.	habitats.	

____	144.	To help protect biodiversity, we must
a.	protects habitats.	
b.	expand pesticide use.	
c.	increase the use of nonrenewable energy.	
d.	encourage human population growth.	

____	145.	Pollution can be reduced if people recycle and buy
a.	new cars.	c.	fossil fuels.	
b.	recycled products.	d.	used cars.	

____	146.	Something that can be broken down by living organisms is
a.	biodegradable.	c.	ecological.	
b.	economic.	d.	renewable.	

____	147.	Which chemicals destroy protective ozone?
a.	PCBs	c.	radioactive wastes	
b.	CFCs	d.	carbon dioxide and oxygen	

____	148.	The northern snakehead fish was introduced into North America from Asia. It is an example of a(n)
a.	plant species.	c.	exotic species.	
b.	endangered species.	d.	renewable species.	

____	149.	Five major kinds of pollution are radioactive wastes, gases, noise,
a.	dirt, and chemicals.	c.	chemicals, and garbage.	
b.	garbage, and odors.	d.	grime, and chemicals.	

____	150.	Conservation helps
a.	prevent habitat destruction and reduce pollution.	
b.	prevent biodiversity and destroy habitats.	
c.	prevent disease and increase pollution.	
d.	end exotic species invasion and use up resources.	

____	151.	Destruction of habitats has a harmful effect on
a.	exotic species.	c.	factories.	
b.	biodiversity.	d.	pollution.	

____	152.	Which of the following is NOT an example of a renewable resource?
a.	solar energy	c.	some kinds of trees	
b.	wind energy	d.	coal	

____	153.	Aside from gases, noise, garbage, and radioactive wastes, what is another kind of pollution?
a.	deforestation	c.	biodiversity	
b.	chemicals	d.	exotic species	

____	154.	Which of the following is an unwanted change in the environment that is caused by harmful substances?
a.	conservation	c.	nonrenewable resources	
b.	garbage	d.	pollution	

____	155.	What is an organism’s home called?
a.	a habitat	c.	a house	
b.	an environment	d.	a neighborhood	

____	156.	What is lost when habitats are damaged or destroyed?
a.	biodiversity	c.	exotic species	
b.	fossil fuels	d.	pollutants	

____	157.	What are some farmers doing to help the environment?
a.	not planting crops	c.	watering their crops more	
b.	practicing organic farming	d.	watering their crops less	

____	158.	What kinds of advances have helped the human population grow?
a.	advances in transportation and electronics	
b.	advances in TV and radio	
c.	advances in medicine and farming	
d.	advances in housing and education	

____	159.	What organisms make homes for themselves in new places?
a.	predator species	c.	endangered species	
b.	animal species	d.	exotic species	

____	160.	If rising global temperatures melt the polar icecaps, what might happen to coastal areas?
a.	more clouds	c.	more rain	
b.	deeper oceans	d.	more flooding	

____	161.	How does driving electric cars rather than gas-fueled cars help the environment?
a.	They use more fossil fuels than gas-fueled cars.	
b.	They produce less energy than gas-fueled cars.	
c.	They produce less pollution than gas-fueled cars.	
d.	They use more gasoline than gas-fueled cars.	

____	162.	Which of the following is an important environmental strategy?
a.	drinking less water	c.	adopting stray animals	
b.	using pesticides	d.	protecting habitats	

____	163.	Many scientists believe that increased global temperatures are due to
a.	increased carbon dioxide.	c.	decreased pollution.	
b.	increased PCBs.	d.	decreased chemicals.	

____	164.	Which of the following is an example of a natural source of pollution?
a.	a factory	c.	a volcano	
b.	an automobile	d.	chemicals	

____	165.	People from which nation throw away more trash than people from other nations?
a.	England	c.	Kenya	
b.	United States	d.	Japan	

____	166.	Radioactive wastes are hazardous wastes that give off
a.	bad odors.	c.	radiation.	
b.	light.	d.	loud, irritating sounds.	

____	167.	Solar energy is an example of this kind of resource.
a.	renewable	c.	fossil fuel	
b.	nonrenewable	d.	hazardous	

____	168.	What are the most diverse habitats on Earth?
a.	tundras	c.	deserts	
b.	deciduous forests	d.	tropical rain forests	

____	169.	How does nonpoint-source pollution often occur?
a.	Garbage is burned to produce electricity.	
b.	Chemicals are washed into rivers, lakes, and oceans.	
c.	People drive electric cars.	
d.	People do not recycle trash.	

____	170.	What is an environmentally friendly way to fertilize your garden?
a.	use chemical fertilizers	c.	use organic compost	
b.	water more often	d.	use solar lamps	

____	171.	What might be lost if people continue to waste resources and to pollute?
a.	natural habitats	c.	factories	
b.	solar power	d.	wind power	

____	172.	Practicing conservation means using fewer
a.	hazardous wastes.	c.	organic fertilizers.	
b.	natural resources.	d.	cloth bags.	

____	173.	Why is paper packaging better for the environment than plastic?
a.	Paper is more expensive.	c.	Paper is biodegradable.	
b.	Paper is bulky.	d.	Paper is smaller.	

____	174.	In order to reduce the need for fossil fuels, scientists are studying power sources such as wind, tides, and
a.	natural gas.	c.	coal.	
b.	propane.	d.	falling water.	

____	175.	Wastewater that goes down drains can be reclaimed and used
a.	for drinking.	c.	for bathing.	
b.	for watering crops.	d.	for swimming.	

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	abiotic	d.	population	
b.	community	e.	biosphere	
c.	ecosystem	f.	ecology	

____	176.	group of organisms of the same species living in the same area

____	177.	the study of the interactions of living organisms with each other and the environment

____	178.	nonliving part of the environment

____	179.	all the populations of species that live and interact in the same habitat

____	180.	the part of Earth where life exists

____	181.	a community of organisms and their abiotic environment

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	herbivore	d.	food web	
b.	food chain	e.	omnivore	
c.	carnivore	f.	energy pyramid	

____	182.	an organism that eats only animals

____	183.	a triangular diagram that shows an ecosystem’s loss of energy

____	184.	an organism that eats both plants and animals

____	185.	an organism that eats only plants

____	186.	a diagram that shows how energy in food flows from one organism to another

____	187.	a diagram that shows the feeding relationships between organisms in an ecosystem

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	prey	d.	commensalism	
b.	symbiosis	e.	parasitism	
c.	mutualism	f.	coevolution	

____	188.	a relationship between two organisms in which one benefits and the other is not affected

____	189.	the evolution of two or more species due to mutual influence

____	190.	a relationship in which two different organisms live in close association with each other

____	191.	an organism that is killed and eaten by another organism

____	192.	a relationship where one organism benefits and the other is harmed

____	193.	a relationship between two species in which both species benefit

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	mutualism	e.	omnivore	
b.	ecosystem	f.	energy pyramid	
c.	ecology	g.	prey	
d.	biosphere	h.	parasitism	

____	194.	a triangular diagram that shows how energy is lost as animals eat other living things

____	195.	symbiosis in which one organism hurts another to benefit itself

____	196.	the depths of the oceans to the heights of the air

____	197.	the level of environmental organization in which biotic and abiotic parts of the environment are all considered together

____	198.	symbiosis in which one organism gives the other food and receives protection

____	199.	the term used to describe a sparrow that has been caught by an eagle

____	200.	the study of how living organisms and nonliving factors in the environment interact

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	condensation	d.	runoff	
b.	precipitation	e.	evaporation	
c.	groundwater	

____	201.	change of water from vapor to liquid

____	202.	precipitation that falls on land and then goes into rivers and lakes

____	203.	water that falls from atmosphere to land and oceans

____	204.	change of water from liquid to vapor

____	205.	water stored between or within rocks

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	succession	d.	pioneer species	
b.	primary succession	e.	climax species	
c.	secondary succession	

____	206.	first organisms to live in an area

____	207.	community growing in an area where organisms have never lived

____	208.	well-adapted species in a mature community.

____	209.	community growing in an area affected by a disturbance

____	210.	replacement of one type of community by another over time

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	evaporation	d.	decomposition	
b.	condensation	e.	succession	
c.	combustion	

____	211.	change of water from vapor to liquid

____	212.	replacement of one type of community by another over time

____	213.	breakdown of substances into simpler molecules

____	214.	change of water from liquid to vapor

____	215.	burning of a substance

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	tundra	e.	temperate deciduous forest	
b.	temperate grasslands	f.	tropical rain forest	
c.	desert	g.	savanna	
d.	coniferous forest	

____	216.	has scattered clumps of trees and seasonal rains

____	217.	has trees that produce seeds in cones

____	218.	has permafrost

____	219.	has trees that lose their leaves during winter

____	220.	has greatest diversity of plants and animals

____	221.	is very dry and often very hot

____	222.	has many grasses and few trees

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	intertidal area	c.	estuary	
b.	coral reef	d.	Sargasso Sea	

____	223.	is made of the skeletons of small animals

____	224.	contains huge, floating rafts of algae

____	225.	is where organisms have adapted to keep from being swept away

____	226.	contains both fresh and salt water

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	temperate deciduous forest	e.	desert	
b.	coniferous forest	f.	polar tundra	
c.	temperate grassland	g.	alpine tundra	
d.	savanna	

____	227.	has permafrost; in the Arctic or Antarctic

____	228.	has many trees that do not change much seasonally

____	229.	has organisms with special adaptations to a hot, dry climate

____	230.	has clumps of trees and seasonal rains

____	231.	is found above the tree line of mountains

____	232.	has many trees that lose all of their leaves to save water

____	233.	has grass, but few trees due to fires, drought, and grazing

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	intertidal area	e.	polar ice	
b.	coral reef	f.	marsh	
c.	estuary	g.	swamp	
d.	Sargasso Sea	

____	234.	is made of the skeletons of small animals

____	235.	contains huge, floating rafts of algae

____	236.	is a wetland that is often in shallow areas along shores

____	237.	has icy waters that are rich in nutrients

____	238.	has a constantly changing amount of salt in the water

____	239.	is a wetland that has trees and is often found in low-lying areas

____	240.	includes mudflats, sandy beaches, and rocky shores

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	biodiversity	d.	renewable resource	
b.	overpopulation	e.	pollution	
c.	nonrenewable resource	

____	241.	a natural resource that can be replaced at the same rate at which it is consumed

____	242.	an unwanted change in the environment that is caused by harmful substances

____	243.	too many organisms in one area for the resources available

____	244.	a natural resource that forms more slowly than the rate at which it is consumed

____	245.	the number and variety of organisms in an area at one time

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	nonpoint-source pollution	e.	renewable resource	
b.	conservation	f.	pollution	
c.	overpopulation	g.	point-source pollution	
d.	nonrenewable resource	

____	246.	the preservation and wise use of natural resources

____	247.	an unwanted change in the environment that is caused by harmful substances

____	248.	pollution that comes from only one source

____	249.	a natural resource that forms more slowly than the rate at which it is consumed

____	250.	too many organisms in an area for the resources available

CRCT REVIEW 3
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	2.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	3.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	4.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	6.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.a

	7.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	8.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	9.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.d

	10.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	11.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	12.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	13.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	14.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	15.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	16.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	17.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.a

	18.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	19.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	20.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.d

	21.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	22.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	23.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	24.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	25.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	26.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	27.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	28.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	29.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	30.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	31.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	32.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	33.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	34.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	35.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.d

	36.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	37.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	38.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	39.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	40.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	41.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	42.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	43.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	44.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	45.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	46.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	47.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	48.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	49.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	50.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	51.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	52.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	53.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	54.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	55.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	56.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	57.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	58.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	59.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	60.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	61.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	62.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	63.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	64.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	65.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	66.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	67.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	68.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	69.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1 | 2 | 3	STA:	S7L4

	70.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	71.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	72.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	73.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	74.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	75.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	76.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	77.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	78.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	79.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	80.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	3	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	81.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	82.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	83.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	84.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	85.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	86.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	87.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	88.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	89.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	90.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	91.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	92.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	93.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	94.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	95.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	96.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4

	97.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	98.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	99.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	100.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	101.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	102.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	103.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	104.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	105.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	106.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	107.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	108.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	109.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	110.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	111.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	112.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	113.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	114.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	115.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	116.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	117.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	118.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	119.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.c

	120.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4

	121.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	122.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	123.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	124.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	125.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	126.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	127.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	128.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	129.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.c

	130.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	131.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	132.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	133.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4

	134.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	135.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	136.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	137.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	138.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	139.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.c

	140.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	6	STA:	S7L4

	141.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	142.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	143.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	144.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	145.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	146.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	147.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	148.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	149.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	150.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	151.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	152.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	153.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	154.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4.c

	155.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4.c

	156.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4

	157.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	6

	158.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.c

	159.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	160.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	161.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	162.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.c

	163.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	164.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	165.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	166.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	167.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	168.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4.c

	169.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4

	170.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	171.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	172.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	173.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	174.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	175.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

MATCHING

	176.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	177.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	178.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	179.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	180.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	181.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	182.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	183.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2 | 3	STA:	S7L4

	184.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	185.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	186.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.a

	187.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	188.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	189.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	190.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	191.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	192.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	193.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	194.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.d

	195.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	196.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.a

	197.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	198.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	199.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	200.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4

	201.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	202.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	203.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	204.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	205.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	206.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	207.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	208.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	209.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	210.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	211.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	212.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	213.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	214.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	215.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	216.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	217.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	218.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	219.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	220.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	221.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	222.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	223.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	224.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	225.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	226.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	227.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	228.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	229.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	230.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	231.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	232.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	233.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	234.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	235.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	236.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	237.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	238.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	239.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	240.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	241.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	242.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	243.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	244.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	245.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L4

	246.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	247.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	248.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	249.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	250.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4