CRCT REVIEW 4

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	Human beings are
a.	machines.	c.	organisms.	
b.	systems.	d.	protists.	

____	2.	One benefit of being a large organism is that you have
a.	larger cells.	c.	simpler functions.	
b.	fewer predators.	d.	only one kind of cell.	

____	3.	The life span of a multicellular organism is
a.	only as long as the life of one cell.	
b.	shorter than that of a single-celled organism.	
c.	not limited to the life of a single cell.	
d.	the same in every cell.	

____	4.	A group of cells with the same function makes up
a.	an organism.	c.	a tissue.	
b.	an organ system.	d.	a structure.	

____	5.	In what kind of tissue does photosynthesis take place?
a.	nerve	c.	transport	
b.	muscle	d.	ground	

____	6.	An organ consists of
a.	two or more tissues.	c.	two or more systems.	
b.	a group of cells.	d.	nerves and muscles.	

____	7.	An organ system has
a.	one kind of tissue.	c.	two or more organs.	
b.	only one function.	d.	one main kind of cell.	

____	8.	Even simple multicellular organisms can have
a.	organs.	c.	systems.	
b.	specialized cells.	d.	colonies.	

____	9.	The highest level of organization is the
a.	cell.	c.	organ.	
b.	tissue.	d.	system.	

____	10.	The functions of an organism’s parts are related to those parts’
a.	structures.	c.	blood cells.	
b.	systems.	d.	alveoli.	

____	11.	What is smallest unit that can perform all the processes necessary for life?
a.	cell	c.	organelle	
b.	nucleus	d.	protist	

____	12.	Robert Hooke and Anton van Leeuwenhoek not only helped discover cells but also
a.	discovered that cells came from existing cells.	
b.	helped develop the microscope.	
c.	concluded that all living things had cells.	
d.	discovered mushrooms and fungi.	

____	13.	Leeuwenhoek called the single-celled organisms that he found in pond scum “animalcules.” Today we know them as
a.	animals.	c.	fungi.	
b.	plant life.	d.	protists.	

____	14.	Scientist Matthias Schleiden contributed to the cell theory by concluding that
a.	the cells of plants and animals were the same.	
b.	all plant parts were made of cells.	
c.	the cells of plants were different from those of animals.	
d.	all animal tissues were made of cells.	

____	15.	Which of the following statements is not part of the cell theory?
a.	Animals and plants share the same kinds of cells.	
b.	All organisms are made up of one or more cells.	
c.	The cell is the basic unit of all living things.	
d.	All cells come from existing cells.	

____	16.	Most cells are a very small size because
a.	they don’t have hard shells like eggs.	
b.	their volume does not increase.	
c.	their volume is limited by how large their surface area is.	
d.	their surface area-to-volume ratio is too small.	

____	17.	What cell part supports the cell and might be made of cellulose or chitin?
a.	cell membrane	c.	ribosome	
b.	cell wall	d.	nucleus	

____	18.	What part of the cell forms a barrier between the cell and its environment?
a.	cell membrane	c.	ribosome	
b.	nucleus	d.	cholesterol	

____	19.	What part of the cell keeps the cell membrane from collapsing?
a.	cell wall	c.	cytoskeleton	
b.	cytoplasm	d.	nucleus	

____	20.	A cell’s nucleus contains DNA, which carries genetic material with
a.	ribosomes.	c.	the endoplasmic reticulum.	
b.	the cytoskeleton.	d.	instructions for how to make protein.	

____	21.	Ribosomes, the organelles that make proteins, are found on the membranes of the
a.	cell wall.	c.	mitochondria.	
b.	endoplasmic reticulum.	d.	vacuoles.	

____	22.	What part of the cell acts as the cell’s delivery system?
a.	nucleus	c.	mitochondrion	
b.	nucleolus	d.	endoplasmic reticulum	

____	23.	Energy released by a cell’s mitochondrion is stored in
a.	ATP.	c.	the ER.	
b.	DNA.	d.	RNA.	

____	24.	What cell parts carry materials between organelles such as the ER and the Golgi complex?
a.	ribosomes	c.	vesicles	
b.	lysosomes	d.	vacuoles	

____	25.	Larger size, longer life, and specialization are three advantages to being a
a.	eukaryote.	c.	unicellular organism.	
b.	prokaryote.	d.	multicellular organism.	

____	26.	Which of the following is true of each of the four levels of organization of living things?
a.	Each contains larger cells than the level below it.	
b.	Each is more complex than the level below it.	
c.	Each performs the same functions as the level below it.	
d.	Each is more specialized than the level below it.	

____	27.	The function of a part of an organism is related to
a.	its arrangement of cells.	c.	the structure of that part.	
b.	the shape of its parts.	d.	its appearance under a microscope.	

____	28.	Which statement is NOT part of the cell theory?
a.	All organisms are made of one or more cells.	
b.	Animal and plant cells contain the same organelles.	
c.	The cell is the basic unit of living things.	
d.	All cells originate from other cells.	

____	29.	A cell’s volume grows faster than its surface area, so if a cell gets too large
a.	its surface area–to-volume ratio will decrease.	
b.	the cell membrane and cell walls will break down.	
c.	its outer surface will harden like an eggshell does.	
d.	it will not be able to take in enough nutrients or get rid of wastes.	

____	30.	A large vesicle that aids in digestion within plant cells the way lysosomes do is called
a.	an enzyme.	c.	a mitochondrion.	
b.	a vacuole.	d.	a nucleolus.	

____	31.	Most of a cell’s ATP is made and stored in the inner membrane of the
a.	Golgi complex.	c.	endoplasmic reticulum.	
b.	nucleus.	d.	mitochondrion.	

____	32.	Specialization in cells makes tissues, organs, and systems
a.	grow large in size.	c.	work more efficiently.	
b.	produce larger cells.	d.	stay healthy.	

____	33.	Which phrase describes a cell?
a.	is always very small	c.	always looks like an egg	
b.	does everything needed for life	d.	is found only in plants	

____	34.	What are all organisms made of?
a.	plants	c.	cells	
b.	protists	d.	eggs	

____	35.	Where do all cells come from?
a.	animals	c.	cells	
b.	ponds	d.	eggs	

____	36.	What keeps the size of most cells very small?
a.	their hard shells	c.	food and wastes	
b.	the surface area–to-volume ratio	d.	their thin surfaces	

____	37.	What protects the inside of a cell from the outside world?
a.	cytoplasm	c.	cell membrane	
b.	nucleus	d.	DNA	

____	38.	How are archaea different from bacteria?
a.	Archaea have different ribosomes.	c.	Archaea have cell membranes.	
b.	Archaea have only one cell.	d.	Archaea have RNA, not DNA.	

____	39.	Robert Hooke thought that animals did not have cells because he
a.	had not yet invented the microscope.	
b.	could not see animal cells in his microscope.	
c.	had not yet discovered protists.	
d.	was looking at dead cork cells, not live ones.	

____	40.	The organisms that Leeuwenhoek called animalcules are today known as
a.	cells.	c.	prokaryotes.	
b.	eukaryotes.	d.	protists.	

____	41.	The cell theory was developed
a.	by Robert Hooke.	c.	over a period of more than 200 years.	
b.	by Rudolf Virchow.	d.	in the year 1858.	

____	42.	Which two things must be compared to explain why almost all cells are small?
a.	surface area and volume	c.	food production and waste elimination	
b.	the shell and the yolk	d.	membranes and organelles	

____	43.	An organelle that is membrane-bound is
a.	part of a prokaryote.	c.	unable to move around in the cell.	
b.	surrounded by membranes.	d.	part of the nucleus.	

____	44.	Protists are a group of organisms that include
a.	only prokaryotes.	
b.	only eukaryotes.	
c.	only small organisms found in pond water.	
d.	both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.	

____	45.	The complex sugar cellulose is found in the cell walls of
a.	all prokaryotes.	c.	animals.	
b.	plants.	d.	fungi.	

____	46.	Because lipids are hydrophobic and face inward, their ends
a.	keep water inside the cell.	c.	attract water.	
b.	get rid of wastes.	d.	replace cell walls.	

____	47.	The hydrophilic ends of phospholipics face outward, where they serve to
a.	protect the cell from water.	c.	attract water.	
b.	get rid of wastes.	d.	replace cell walls.	

____	48.	What is cytoplasm?
a.	the nucleus of a cell	c.	the genetic material in a cell	
b.	the fluid inside a cell	d.	the proteins in a cell	

____	49.	Where does photosynthesis take place in a cell?
a.	in the nucleus	c.	in the chloroplasts	
b.	in the mitochondria	d.	in the ribosomes	

____	50.	What does the Golgi complex do in a cell?
a.	It packages and distributes proteins.	
b.	It is the power source of the cell.	
c.	It makes proteins.	
d.	It makes sugar and oxygen.	

____	51.	What is the job of the lysosomes?
a.	They store water.	
b.	They digest food particles.	
c.	They make new cells.	
d.	They package proteins.	

____	52.	During the process of diffusion,
a.	cell surrounds and absorbs large particles.	
b.	particles move from areas of lower concentration to higher concentration.	
c.	a cell surrounds and gets rid of large particles.	
d.	particles move from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration.	

____	53.	Osmosis is important to cells because
a.	cells are filled with fluids that are made mostly of water.	
b.	cells need to get rid of large particles they don’t need.	
c.	cells need to move from place to place.	
d.	cells are usually dry.	

____	54.	Cellular respiration is the process by which
a.	plant cells create glucose.	
b.	cells grow and reproduce.	
c.	cells use oxygen to produce energy from food.	
d.	cells breakdown food without using oxygen.	

____	55.	Fermentation in muscle cells produces
a.	glucose.	c.	water.	
b.	lactic acid.	d.	bacteria.	

____	56.	Photosynthesis allows
a.	an animal cell to get energy from food.	
b.	a cell to produce energy without oxygen.	
c.	a plant to produce food (glucose).	
d.	a plant leaf to turn green.	

____	57.	Cells need to produce new cells in order to
a.	create new chromosomes.	c.	obtain energy from sunlight.	
b.	replace cells that have died.	d.	release energy from food.	

____	58.	Organelles and chromosomes are copied during
a.	the first stage of the eukaryotic cell cycle.	
b.	the second stage of the eukaryotic cell cycle.	
c.	the third stage of the eukaryotic cell cycle.	
d.	cytokinesis.	

____	59.	During cytokinesis in plant cells,
a.	a cell plate forms inside the two new cells.	
b.	the cell loses some of its DNA.	
c.	a cell plate forms, and the cell splits in two.	
d.	the cell wall breaks.	

____	60.	What must organisms be able to obtain in order to survive?
a.	energy and heat	c.	heat and cold	
b.	DNA and water	d.	energy and raw materials	

____	61.	When particles travel from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, it is called
a.	endocytosis.	c.	exocytosis.	
b.	active transport.	d.	diffusion.	

____	62.	Diffusion allows materials to
a.	move in and out of cells.	c.	get rid of large particles.	
b.	grow larger.	d.	produce energy.	

____	63.	A cell does not need to use energy during
a.	active transport.	c.	diffusion.	
b.	exocytosis.	d.	endocytosis.	

____	64.	When water diffuses into or out of a cell, it is called
a.	exocytosis.	c.	endocytosis.	
b.	osmosis.	d.	flooding.	

____	65.	Osmosis is important to cells because
a.	cells contain fluids that are mostly water.	
b.	cells are filled with fluids that are mostly sugar.	
c.	cells need to be kept cool.	
d.	cells need food.	

____	66.	Passive transport occurs when small particles move from
a.	outside a cell to inside a cell.	
b.	areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration.	
c.	areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration.	
d.	inside a cell to outside a cell.	

____	67.	A cell moving particles with the use of energy is called
a.	active transport.	c.	passive transport.	
b.	osmosis.	d.	endocytosis.	

____	68.	The process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria use carbon dioxide, sunlight, and water to make glucose and oxygen is called
a.	osmosis.	c.	photosynthesis.	
b.	fermentation.	d.	cellular respiration.	

____	69.	Why does a plant need to produce glucose?
a.	in order to turn green	c.	in order to move	
b.	in order to obtain energy	d.	in order to get sunlight	

____	70.	Cellular respiration allows an organism to get energy from
a.	sunlight.	c.	water.	
b.	oxygen.	d.	food.	

____	71.	Fermentation occurs when a cell can’t get
a.	oxygen needed for cellular respiration.	
b.	sunlight.	
c.	energy.	
d.	food needed for energy.	

____	72.	Food particles move through a cell membrane without using energy in a process called
a.	osmosis.	c.	active transport.	
b.	passive transport.	d.	endocytosis.	

____	73.	When wilted celery is soaked in water, it becomes crisp again due to
a.	exocytosis.	c.	vesicle movement.	
b.	active transport.	d.	osmosis.	

____	74.	Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a.	glucose	c.	water	
b.	carbon dioxide	d.	heat energy	

____	75.	Which of the following is NOT used to make glucose in photosynthesis?
a.	H2O	c.	CO2	
b.	O2	d.	light energy	

____	76.	What do all organisms need in order to live?
a.	sunlight	c.	energy and raw materials	
b.	exercise	d.	shelter	

____	77.	What do all organisms need to get rid of in order to live?
a.	wastes	c.	energy	
b.	heat	d.	fat	

____	78.	Through what do materials go in and out of an organism’s cells?
a.	mouths	c.	mitochondria	
b.	pores	d.	cell membranes	

____	79.	How do particles move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration?
a.	by transportation	c.	by active transport	
b.	by diffusion	d.	by travel	

____	80.	How do particles move from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration?
a.	by transportation	c.	by active transport	
b.	by diffusion	d.	by osmosis	

____	81.	What helps wilted plants become firm through osmosis?
a.	sunlight	c.	energy	
b.	water	d.	heat	

____	82.	Moving materials through a cell membrane by active transport requires the use of
a.	light.	c.	water.	
b.	energy.	d.	endocytosis.	

____	83.	Osmosis benefits plant cells by bringing in
a.	energy.	c.	water.	
b.	sunlight.	d.	soil.	

____	84.	Diffusion is a type of
a.	passive transport.	c.	photosynthesis.	
b.	active transport.	d.	osmosis.	

____	85.	When a human feels hungry it is because his or her cells need
a.	sunlight.	c.	water.	
b.	rest.	d.	energy.	

____	86.	Most complex organisms obtain energy through
a.	photosynthesis.	c.	breathing.	
b.	growth.	d.	cellular respiration.	

____	87.	When fermentation occurs in muscle cells, muscle fatigue is caused by the production of
a.	energy.	c.	lactic acid.	
b.	glucose.	d.	yeast.	

____	88.	Where is chlorophyll located?
a.	in chloroplasts	c.	in cell membranes	
b.	in mitochondria	d.	in pigments	

____	89.	What part of a cell uses cellular respiration to release energy stored in food?
a.	cell membrane	c.	mitochondria	
b.	chlorophyll	d.	water	

____	90.	What gas is released during cellular respiration?
a.	carbon dioxide	c.	sunlight	
b.	nitrogen	d.	oxygen	

____	91.	Binary fission, the process by which bacteria cells divide, means
a.	two into three.	c.	dividing several times.	
b.	splitting into two parts.	d.	two coming together.	

____	92.	Which type of cells contain more DNA?
a.	prokaryotic cells	c.	cells with cell walls	
b.	eukaryotic cells	d.	cells without cell walls	

____	93.	In a prokaryotic cell, the chromosome is the main ring of
a.	glucose.	c.	DNA.	
b.	chromatids.	d.	sugar.	

____	94.	The material that controls all cell activities is called
a.	mitochondria.	c.	H2O.	
b.	DNA.	d.	cytokinesis.	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	95.	Figure A represents
a.	the process of osmosis.	c.	the process of diffusion.	
b.	the process of endocytosis.	d.	the process of exocytosis.	

____	96.	Figure B represents
a.	the process of osmosis.	c.	the process of exocytosis.	
b.	the process of diffusion.	d.	the process of endocytosis.	

____	97.	In Figure B, the third stage should read
a.	The cell absorbs water to surround the vesicle.	
b.	The membrane begins to wrap around the particle.	
c.	The cell prepares to dissolve the large particle.	
d.	The cell releases the particles to the outside of the cell.	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	98.	This figure best represents what important cell process?
a.	photosynthesis	c.	fermentation	
b.	osmosis	d.	cellular respiration	

____	99.	The organism in which this process is taking place is
a.	a eukaryotic cell, because the cell has a mitochondrion.	
b.	a eukaryotic cell, because the cell produces energy.	
c.	a prokaryotic cell, because the cell releases water and carbon dioxide.	
d.	a prokaryotic cell, because the cell has no cell wall.	

Use the figure above to answer the following questions.

____	100.	Look at the figure. What two processes does it show?
a.	photosynthesis and breathing	c.	growing and cellular respiration	
b.	breathing and growing	d.	photosynthesis and cellular respiration	

____	101.	Look at the figure. What are released during cellular respiration?
a.	carbon dioxide, oxygen, and energy	c.	carbon dioxide, sweat, and energy	
b.	carbon dioxide, glucose, and energy	d.	carbon dioxide, water, and energy	

____	102.	What step did Mendel take to be sure that his pea plants cross-pollinated?
a.	He used two white plants.	
b.	He removed the anthers of one plant.	
c.	He added anthers to both plants.	
d.	He used plants that were not true breeding.	

____	103.	What happens when a true-breeding plant self-pollinates?
a.	One of its offspring has the same traits as the parent.	
b.	Some of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	
c.	All of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	
d.	None of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	

____	104.	Why were ratios important in Mendel’s work?
a.	They showed that heredity does not follow a set pattern.	
b.	They showed that some traits are never passed on.	
c.	They showed the relationship between two different things.	
d.	They showed that some recessive traits are really dominant.	

____	105.	Each parent gives one set of these to the offspring.
a.	genes	c.	phenotypes	
b.	alleles	d.	meiosis	

____	106.	A plant with two dominant OR two recessive alleles is said to be
a.	heterozygous.	c.	homozygous.	
b.	cross-pollinating.	d.	true breeding.	

____	107.	Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
a.	One gene can influence many traits.	
b.	Several genes can influence a single trait.	
c.	The environment can have an influence on traits.	
d.	Genes are the only influence on traits.	

____	108.	Asexual reproduction relates to humans in that
a.	none of our body cells reproduce this way.	
b.	many body cells reproduce this way.	
c.	the parent cells do not divide.	
d.	meiosis occurs.	

____	109.	How are sex cells different from other human cells?
a.	Sex cells have more chromosomes.	
b.	Sex cells have half as many chromosomes.	
c.	Sex cells are larger.	
d.	Sex cells have no chromosomes.	

____	110.	What are homologous chromosomes?
a.	chromosomes that carry the same set of genes	
b.	chromosomes that carry different sets of genes	
c.	chromosomes that are small	
d.	chromosomes that are large	

____	111.	Why do sex-linked disorders occur more often in males?
a.	Males have two X chromosomes.	
b.	Males have only one X chromosome.	
c.	Males have two Y chromosomes.	
d.	Males have two X and two Y chromosomes.	

____	112.	The one thing that Gregor Mendel realized could explain the results of his experiments was that
a.	the traits were appearing at random.	
b.	the male traits were always the dominant ones.	
c.	each trait had two sets of instructions, one from each parent.	
d.	his important research would open the door to modern genetics.	

____	113.	What carries the genes that determine sex?
a.	homologous chromosomes	c.	sex chromosomes	
b.	pedigree	d.	phenotype	

____	114.	Instructions for an inherited trait are called
a.	alleles.	c.	albinism.	
b.	phenotype.	d.	genes.	

____	115.	The different forms of a gene that decide a characteristic are known as
a.	alleles.	c.	albinism.	
b.	phenotypes.	d.	genes.	

____	116.	What did Mendel discover about recessive traits?
a.	Recessive traits reappear in the second generation.	
b.	Recessive traits disappear altogether.	
c.	Recessive traits never appear in the second generation.	
d.	Recessive traits become dominant.	

____	117.	Which one of the following is the name for the way cells divide in asexual reproduction?
a.	twins	c.	meiosis	
b.	mitosis	d.	homologous	

____	118.	This diagram is used to trace a trait through generations of a family.
a.	pedigree	c.	meiosis	
b.	selective breeding	d.	generation square	

____	119.	What are chromosomes that carry the same sets of genes?
a.	twin chromosomes	c.	ordinary chromosomes	
b.	homologous chromosomes	d.	asexual chromosomes	

____	120.	What is a feature that has different forms in a population?
a.	pedigree	c.	fertilization	
b.	characteristic	d.	trait	

____	121.	Sex-linked disorders are caused by males’ having
a.	only one X chromosome.	c.	two X chromosomes.	
b.	two Y chromosomes.	d.	one X and two Y chromosomes.	

____	122.	What is a trait?
a.	different forms of meiosis	c.	different forms of chromatids	
b.	different forms of a pedigree	d.	different forms of a characteristic	

____	123.	When a plant fertilizes itself, it is called a(n)
a.	allele plant.	c.	self-pollinating plant.	
b.	true-breeding plant.	d.	cross-pollinating plant.	

____	124.	When there is incomplete dominance,
a.	one allele has more influence than the others.	
b.	each allele has its own degree of influence.	
c.	the alleles have no influence.	
d.	there are no alleles present.	

____	125.	What kind of plant produces offspring with the same traits as the parent?
a.	self-pollinating	c.	true-breeding	
b.	cross-pollinating	d.	nonbreeding	

____	126.	What do you call one set of instructions for an inherited trait?
a.	alleles	c.	albinism	
b.	phenotype	d.	genes	

____	127.	Two forms of a gene, one from each parent, are called
a.	alleles.	c.	albinism.	
b.	phenotypes.	d.	genes.	

____	128.	Offspring that are different from both parents are produced by
a.	asexual reproduction.	c.	sexual reproduction.	
b.	something going wrong.	d.	mitosis.	

____	129.	What are chromosomes that carry the same sets of genes?
a.	twin chromosomes	c.	ordinary chromosomes	
b.	homologous chromosomes	d.	asexual chromosomes	

____	130.	What is heredity?
a.	traits passing from offspring to parents	
b.	traits passing from parents to offspring	
c.	plants that are cross-pollinated	
d.	the ratio of dominant to recessive traits	

____	131.	What is a plant that has two dominant genes or two recessive genes called?
a.	organism	c.	homozygous	
b.	genotype	d.	heterozygous	

____	132.	What is Mendel’s ratio for dominant to recessive traits?
a.	1 to 1	c.	3 to 1	
b.	2 to 1	d.	4 to 1	

____	133.	What is a phenotype?
a.	the way an organism feels	c.	a dominant gene	
b.	a group of 5 alleles	d.	the way an organism looks	

____	134.	What is it called when cells are copied with half the number of chromosomes?
a.	sex cells	c.	a nucleus	
b.	meiosis	d.	mitosis	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	135.	Why are all first generation flowers gray?
a.	Gray is the dominant color.	c.	Gray is the darker color.	
b.	Gray is the recessive color.	d.	It is just a coincidence.	

____	136.	What ratio explains the gray flowers and white flower in the second generation?
a.	1 to 1	c.	3 to 1	
b.	2 to 1	d.	4 to 1	

____	137.	What is the difference between the pollination in the first generation and the second generation?
a.	The first one was natural and the second was selective breeding.	
b.	The first one was selective breeding and the second one was natural.	
c.	They were both natural, but new plants were added before the second pollination.	
d.	They were both selective breeding, but the second one was not controlled.	

____	138.	What letters represent the four bases?
a.	A, B, C, D	c.	A, T, G, C	
b.	W, X, Y, Z	d.	E, Y, A, O	

____	139.	Using X-ray diffraction, what did Rosalind Franklin show the shape of DNA to be?
a.	a circle	c.	a square	
b.	a spiral	d.	a line	

____	140.	Watson and Crick built a DNA model like a
a.	long, twisted ladder.	c.	straight line.	
b.	piece of twine.	d.	pyramid.	

____	141.	The sides of the DNA “ladder” are made of
a.	guanine and thymine.	c.	sugar and phosphate.	
b.	adenine and cytosine.	d.	helixes and twists.	

____	142.	The “rungs” of the DNA ladder are
a.	a pair of bases.	c.	a pair of phosphates.	
b.	a pair of sugars.	d.	a set of proteins.	

____	143.	To be copied, a DNA molecule splits
a.	across the top.	c.	along the sides.	
b.	down the middle.	d.	along the phosphates.	

____	144.	A string of nucleotides that has instructions for a certain trait is a
a.	cell.	c.	gene.	
b.	ribonucleic acid.	d.	chromosome.	

____	145.	As messenger RNA is fed through the ribosome it is matched with
a.	DNA.	c.	cells.	
b.	transfer RNA.	d.	proteins.	

____	146.	Three bases code for one
a.	cell.	c.	protein.	
b.	DNA.	d.	amino acid.	

____	147.	In what type of mutation is one base left out?
a.	substitution	c.	insertion	
b.	deletion	d.	cell	

____	148.	A tobacco plant with a firefly gene that makes it glow is an example of
a.	DNA fingerprinting.	c.	protein science.	
b.	genetic engineering.	d.	firefly breeding.	

____	149.	Which best expresses the relationship between genes and DNA?
a.	Genes contain DNA.	c.	Both contain chromosomes.	
b.	DNA makes genes.	d.	They are unrelated.	

____	150.	DNA is made of subunits called what?
a.	proteins	c.	traits	
b.	deoxyribonucleic acids	d.	nucleotides	

____	151.	Nucleotides are made of a sugar, a phosphate, and a
a.	base.	c.	gene.	
b.	protein.	d.	ribosome.	

____	152.	Who discovered that the amount of adenine in DNA always equals the amount of thymine?
a.	Rosalind Franklin	c.	Erwin Chargaff	
b.	James Watson	d.	Francis Crick	

____	153.	What scientist made images of DNA by using X-ray diffraction?
a.	Rosalind Franklin	c.	Erwin Chargaff	
b.	James Watson	d.	Francis Crick	

____	154.	What did Watson and Crick’s model of DNA look like?
a.	a ball	c.	links in a chain	
b.	a straight line	d.	a long, twisted ladder	

____	155.	A string of nucleotides that has information for making one trait is
a.	a protein.	c.	an amino acid.	
b.	a gene.	d.	a cell.	

____	156.	Each set of three bases is a code for
a.	a specific cell.	c.	a specific ribosome.	
b.	a specific chromosome.	d.	a specific amino acid.	

____	157.	The first step in making a protein is
a.	RNA copying DNA.	c.	mRNA going to ribosome.	
b.	transfer RNA matching mRNA.	d.	amino acids linked together.	

____	158.	What is the type of mutation where a base is added to the gene?
a.	deletion	c.	insertion	
b.	substitution	d.	ultraviolet	

____	159.	Using DNA to identify who committed a crime is
a.	genetic engineering.	c.	genetic disease.	
b.	DNA fingerprinting.	d.	DNA cloning.	

____	160.	The code for a given amino acid consists of how many bases?
a.	one	c.	three	
b.	two	d.	four	

____	161.	What materials make up each nucleotide in a DNA molecule?
a.	mRNA, tRNA, and a ribosome	c.	chromosomes and genes	
b.	sugar, phosphate, and base	d.	amino acid, base, and protein	

____	162.	Some genetic disorders, such as sickle cell anemia, are due to
a.	a ribosome.	c.	a DNA fingerprint.	
b.	a mutation.	d.	genetic engineering.	

____	163.	The complementary strand to the DNA sequence TAGTCA is
a.	ATGAGT.	c.	GTAGAT.	
b.	GACAGT.	d.	ATCAGT.	

____	164.	What determines how tall you grow and whether your hair is curly or straight?
a.	a chromatid	c.	proteins	
b.	RNA	d.	ultraviolet radiation	

____	165.	Which item is genetic engineering NOT currently used for?
a.	to genetically alter plants	c.	to manufacture proteins	
b.	to repair damaged genes	d.	to create natural gas	

____	166.	Which of these is a subunit of DNA?
a.	RNA	c.	ribosome	
b.	trait	d.	nucleotide	

____	167.	Along with a sugar and a phosphate, what is the third part of a nucleotide?
a.	a base	c.	a chromosome	
b.	a protein	d.	a ribosome	

____	168.	Who said that adenine equals thymine in DNA?
a.	Rosalind Franklin	c.	Erwin Chargaff	
b.	James Watson	d.	Francis Crick	

____	169.	Who first found out that DNA has a spiral shape?
a.	Rosalind Franklin	c.	Erwin Chargaff	
b.	James Watson	d.	Francis Crick	

____	170.	What does DNA look like?
a.	a ball	c.	links in a chain	
b.	a straight line	d.	a twisted ladder	

____	171.	What is a string of nucleotides called?
a.	a ribosome	c.	a rule	
b.	a gene	d.	a chromosome	

____	172.	What does each gene have instructions for making?
a.	a cell	c.	a protein	
b.	a ribosome	d.	RNA	

____	173.	Where does messenger RNA go?
a.	to a protein	c.	to a ribosome	
b.	to a genetic engineer	d.	to a chromosome	

____	174.	Which of the following is NOT part of a nucleotide?
a.	base	c.	fat	
b.	sugar	d.	phosphate	

____	175.	Which type of mutation causes sickle cell anemia?
a.	substitution	c.	deletion	
b.	insertion	d.	mutagen	

____	176.	Which is the first step of DNA replication?
a.	Two complete, identical strands of DNA pair up.	
b.	New nucleotides attach to exposed bases.	
c.	A strand of DNA splits down the middle.	
d.	Adenine and thymine make a base pair.	

____	177.	Which is the first step of protein production?
a.	tRNA dropping amino acids	
b.	mRNA going through a ribosome	
c.	RNA making a mirror-like copy of a DNA sequence	
d.	tRNA translating the mRNA message	

____	178.	Whose research indicated that the bases in DNA must match with each other in some regular pattern?
a.	Erwin Chargaff	c.	James Watson	
b.	Rosalind Franklin	d.	Francis Crick	

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	archaea	f.	organelle	
b.	cell membrane	g.	prokaryote	
c.	bacteria	h.	ribosomes	
d.	eukaryote	i.	surface area–to-volume ratio	
e.	nucleus	j.	cytoplasm	

____	179.	tiny, round organelles made of protein and other material

____	180.	the fluid inside a cell

____	181.	the reason that most cells are limited to a very small size

____	182.	a protective layer that covers the cell’s surface and acts as a barrier

____	183.	small bodies in a cell’s cytoplasm that are specialized to perform specific functions

____	184.	in a eukaryotic cell, an organelle that contains the cell’s DNA and that has a role in growth, metabolism, and reproduction

____	185.	an organism that consists of a single cell that does not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles

____	186.	prokaryotes that are the smallest cells and that have ribosomes

____	187.	prokaryotes that include extremophiles, organisms that live in extreme conditions

____	188.	an organism made up of cells that have a nucleus enclosed by a membrane as well as membrane-bound organelles

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	cell membrane	f.	Golgi complex	
b.	cell wall	g.	lysosomes	
c.	chloroplasts	h.	mitochondrion	
d.	cytoskeleton	i.	nucleus	
e.	endoplasmic reticulum	j.	ribosomes	

____	189.	a rigid structure that gives support to a cell

____	190.	a barrier that encloses and protects the cell

____	191.	a web of proteins in the cytoplasm that keeps a cell’s membrane from collapsing

____	192.	a large organelle that produces and stores the cell’s DNA

____	193.	organelles that make proteins

____	194.	a system of folded membranes that functions as the internal delivery system of a cell

____	195.	an organelle that functions as the main power source of a cell, breaking down sugar to produce energy

____	196.	organelles in which photosynthesis takes place

____	197.	the organelle that packages and distributes proteins

____	198.	organelles that contain digestive enzymes

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	archaea	e.	multicellular	
b.	cell membrane	f.	nucleus	
c.	bacteria	g.	organelles	
d.	eukaryotes	h.	prokaryote	

____	199.	the part of the cell that keeps the cytoplasm inside and controls materials going in and out of the cell

____	200.	structures that are usually surrounded by membranes and which perform specific functions within the cell

____	201.	an organelle that contains the cell’s DNA

____	202.	a single-celled organism that has no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles

____	203.	the smallest and most common form of prokaryotes, containing DNA, ribosomes, and a flagellum

____	204.	prokaryotes that include such types as heat-loving, salt-loving, and methane-making

____	205.	organisms made up of cells that have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

____	206.	word that describes most organisms that you can see with your naked eye

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	diffusion	e.	passive transport	
b.	osmosis	f.	vesicle	
c.	active transport	g.	endocytosis	
d.	exocytosis	

____	207.	the movement of water through a membrane

____	208.	the process by which a cell membrane surrounds and encloses a large particle to bring it into the cell

____	209.	the sac formed around a large particle to allow a cell to take in or remove the particle

____	210.	the movement of substances through a cell membrane with the use of cell energy

____	211.	the movement of particles from regions of higher density to regions of lower density

____	212.	the process by which a cell gets rid of large particles

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	ATP	d.	fermentation	
b.	cellular respiration	e.	mitochondria	
c.	photosynthesis	

____	213.	the process a plant uses in order to create glucose

____	214.	the place where cellular respiration in eukaryotes takes place

____	215.	the process cells use to produce energy without oxygen

____	216.	C6H12O6 + 6O2 = 6CO2 + 6H2 + Energy

____	217.	the substance that supplies energy to fuel cell activities

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	cytokinesis	d.	mitosis	
b.	chromosome	e.	homologous chromosomes	
c.	cell cycle	

____	218.	the process of cell division that forms two nuclei

____	219.	the life stages of a cell

____	220.	pairs of similar chromosomes

____	221.	the structure in which DNA, the hereditary material that controls cell activities, can be found

____	222.	the division of cytoplasm

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

a.	cytokinesis	d.	Mitosis Phase 3	
b.	mitosis	e.	the cell cycle	
c.	interphase	f.	Mitosis Phase 2	

____	223.	the name of this process

____	224.	stage at which chromosomes are copied

____	225.	the four stages of cell division

____	226.	stage at which paired chromosomes align at the cell’s equator

____	227.	the division of cytoplasm

____	228.	stage at which the chromatids separate and move to opposite sides of the cells

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	phenotype	e.	cross-pollination	
b.	Punnett square	f.	probability	
c.	homozygous	g.	genotype	
d.	heterozygous	

____	229.	formed from both inherited alleles

____	230.	occurs when a plant pollinates a different kind of plant

____	231.	used to organize possible offspring combinations

____	232.	the mathematical chance that something will happen

____	233.	an organism’s appearance

____	234.	a plant with one dominant and one recessive gene

____	235.	a plant with either two dominant or two recessive genes

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	gene	f.	mutation	
b.	RNA	g.	substitution	
c.	nucleotide	h.	proteins	
d.	ribosome	i.	insertion	
e.	DNA	j.	deletion	

____	236.	the form of mutation where one base is replaced by another kind

____	237.	a subunit of DNA that consists of a sugar, a phosphate, and a base

____	238.	the organelle where proteins are synthesized by messenger RNA and transfer RNA

____	239.	material shaped like a double helix that determines inherited characteristics

____	240.	a molecule that makes a mirror copy of sections of DNA and helps make proteins

____	241.	a string of nucleotides that give the cell information about how to make a specific trait

____	242.	a change in DNA caused by random error or a mutagen

____	243.	the material made of amino acids that causes most of the differences we see in organisms

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	guanine	e.	mutagen	
b.	chromosomes	f.	thymine	
c.	replication	g.	proteins	
d.	amino acids	

____	244.	the stage at which a DNA molecule is split down the middle

____	245.	the base complementary to adenine

____	246.	the base complementary to cytosine

____	247.	a physical or chemical agent that can cause a mutation

____	248.	substances that scientists can produce through genetic engineering

____	249.	in a cell nucleus, the structures that strands of DNA are bundled into

____	250.	chemical parts that are transferred to the ribosome by transfer RNA and matched to messenger RNA

CRCT REVIEW 4
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	2.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	3.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	4.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	5.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	6.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	7.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	8.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	9.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	10.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	11.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	12.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	14.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	15.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	17.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	18.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	19.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	20.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	21.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	22.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	23.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	24.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	25.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	26.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	27.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	28.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	29.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	30.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	31.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	32.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	33.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	34.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	35.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	36.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	37.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	38.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	39.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	40.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	41.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	42.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	43.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	44.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	45.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	46.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	47.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	48.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	OBJ:	3

	49.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	50.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	51.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	52.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	53.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	54.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	55.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	56.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	57.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	58.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	59.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	60.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	61.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	62.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	63.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	64.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	65.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	66.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	67.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.b

	68.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	69.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	70.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	71.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	72.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	73.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	74.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	75.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	76.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	77.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	78.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	79.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	80.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	81.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	82.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	83.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	84.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	85.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	86.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	87.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	88.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	89.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	90.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	91.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	92.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	93.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	94.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	95.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7CS5.b

	96.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7CS5.b

	97.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.b

	98.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	99.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	100.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	101.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	102.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3

	103.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	104.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	105.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	106.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	107.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3

	108.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	109.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	110.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	111.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3

	112.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	113.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	114.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	115.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	116.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3

	117.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.c

	118.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3

	119.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	120.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	121.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3

	122.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3

	123.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	124.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	125.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	126.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	127.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	128.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3

	129.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	130.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	131.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	132.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	133.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	134.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	135.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	136.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.c

	137.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3

	138.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	139.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	140.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	141.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	142.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	143.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	144.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	145.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	146.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	147.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS9.f

	148.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3.a

	149.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	150.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	151.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	152.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	153.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	154.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	155.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	156.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	157.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	158.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9.f

	159.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3.a

	160.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	161.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	162.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	163.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	164.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9.f

	165.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7CS5.b

	166.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	167.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	168.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	169.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	170.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	171.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	172.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	173.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	174.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	175.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	176.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	177.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	178.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

MATCHING

	179.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	180.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	181.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	182.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	183.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	184.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	185.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	186.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	187.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	188.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	189.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	190.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	191.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	192.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	193.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	194.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	195.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	196.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	197.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	198.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	199.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	200.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	201.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	202.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	203.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	204.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	205.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	206.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	207.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	208.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7CS5.b

	209.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7CS5.b

	210.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	211.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS5.b

	212.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.b

	213.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	214.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	215.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	216.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	217.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	218.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	219.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	220.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	221.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	222.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	223.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	224.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	225.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	226.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	227.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	228.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.b

	229.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	230.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	231.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	232.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	233.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	234.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	235.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2 | 3	STA:	S7L3.a

	236.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	237.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	238.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	239.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	240.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	241.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	242.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	243.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.a

	244.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	245.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	246.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	247.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS9.f

	248.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3.a

	249.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.a

	250.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a