CRCT REVIEW

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	Questions that life scientists today are trying to answer include all of the following EXCEPT
a.	the part of a person’s inherited information responsible for certain inherited diseases.	
b.	how the human body responds to space travel.	
c.	how shells have changed over time.	
d.	the age of the oldest star.	

____	2.	Which of these is NOT a type of scientific model?
a.	mathematical model	c.	fashion model	
b.	physical model	d.	conceptual model	

____	3.	Which is a physical model?
a.	a comparison	c.	a toy airplane	
b.	an equation	d.	a graph	

____	4.	In which of the following ways is life science beneficial to living things?
a.	studying rocks on Mars	
b.	searching for a cure for AIDS	
c.	trying to design earthquake-proof buildings	
d.	studying air currents	

____	5.	Human beings are
a.	machines.	c.	organisms.	
b.	systems.	d.	protists.	

____	6.	The highest level of organization is the
a.	cell.	c.	organ.	
b.	tissue.	d.	system.	

____	7.	Which of the following is true of each of the four levels of organization of living things?
a.	Each contains larger cells than the level below it.	
b.	Each is more complex than the level below it.	
c.	Each performs the same functions as the level below it.	
d.	Each is more specialized than the level below it.	

____	8.	Which statement is NOT part of the cell theory?
a.	All organisms are made of one or more cells.	
b.	Animal and plant cells contain the same organelles.	
c.	The cell is the basic unit of living things.	
d.	All cells originate from other cells.	

____	9.	What keeps the size of most cells very small?
a.	their hard shells	c.	food and wastes	
b.	the surface area–to-volume ratio	d.	their thin surfaces	

____	10.	During cytokinesis in plant cells,
a.	a cell plate forms inside the two new cells.	
b.	the cell loses some of its DNA.	
c.	a cell plate forms, and the cell splits in two.	
d.	the cell wall breaks.	

____	11.	Fermentation occurs when a cell can’t get
a.	oxygen needed for cellular respiration.	
b.	sunlight.	
c.	energy.	
d.	food needed for energy.	

____	12.	What helps wilted plants become firm through osmosis?
a.	sunlight	c.	energy	
b.	water	d.	heat	

____	13.	When a human feels hungry it is because his or her cells need
a.	sunlight.	c.	water.	
b.	rest.	d.	energy.	

____	14.	What part of a cell uses cellular respiration to release energy stored in food?
a.	cell membrane	c.	mitochondria	
b.	chlorophyll	d.	water	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	15.	In Figure B, the third stage should read
a.	The cell absorbs water to surround the vesicle.	
b.	The membrane begins to wrap around the particle.	
c.	The cell prepares to dissolve the large particle.	
d.	The cell releases the particles to the outside of the cell.	

____	16.	What happens when a true-breeding plant self-pollinates?
a.	One of its offspring has the same traits as the parent.	
b.	Some of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	
c.	All of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	
d.	None of its offspring have the same traits as the parent.	

____	17.	Which one of the following statements is NOT true?
a.	One gene can influence many traits.	
b.	Several genes can influence a single trait.	
c.	The environment can have an influence on traits.	
d.	Genes are the only influence on traits.	

____	18.	The one thing that Gregor Mendel realized could explain the results of his experiments was that
a.	the traits were appearing at random.	
b.	the male traits were always the dominant ones.	
c.	each trait had two sets of instructions, one from each parent.	
d.	his important research would open the door to modern genetics.	

____	19.	What carries the genes that determine sex?
a.	homologous chromosomes	c.	sex chromosomes	
b.	pedigree	d.	phenotype	

____	20.	Offspring that are different from both parents are produced by
a.	asexual reproduction.	c.	sexual reproduction.	
b.	something going wrong.	d.	mitosis.	

____	21.	Three bases code for one
a.	cell.	c.	protein.	
b.	DNA.	d.	amino acid.	

____	22.	Each set of three bases is a code for
a.	a specific cell.	c.	a specific ribosome.	
b.	a specific chromosome.	d.	a specific amino acid.	

____	23.	What determines how tall you grow and whether your hair is curly or straight?
a.	a chromatid	c.	proteins	
b.	RNA	d.	ultraviolet radiation	

____	24.	Which of these is a subunit of DNA?
a.	RNA	c.	ribosome	
b.	trait	d.	nucleotide	

____	25.	Which of the following was NOT a source for Darwin’s ideas about evolution?
a.	characteristics of Galápagos animals	
b.	selective breeding by farmers and animal breeders	
c.	the ideas and observations of Thomas Malthus and Charles Lyell	
d.	scientists’ knowledge of genetic changes	

____	26.	Which was NOT a source of Charles Darwin’s ideas about evolution?
a.	the writings of Thomas Malthus and Charles Lyell	
b.	Darwin’s observations of the Galápagos finches	
c.	the selective breeding practices of farmers and breeders	
d.	scientific discoveries about DNA and genetic changes	

____	27.	Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?
a.	elephants passing the tuskless trait to their offspring	
b.	male birds developing extremely colorful displays of feathers	
c.	insects developing pesticide resistance	
d.	dog owners breeding their pets to produce friendlier offspring	

____	28.	What time period is called the Age of Mammals?
a.	the Precambrian time	c.	the Paleozoic era	
b.	the Mesozoic era	d.	the Cenozoic era	

____	29.	What is one thing that sets hominids apart from other primates?
a.	They walk upright.	c.	They have hair.	
b.	They live in forests.	d.	They have thumbs.	

____	30.	What kind of animal is the Cenozoic era famous for?
a.	reptiles	c.	mammals	
b.	birds	d.	fish	

____	31.	Today, what system based on shared characteristics is used to classify organisms?
a.	sets of encyclopedias	c.	notes and photographs	
b.	the eight-level system	d.	drawings and graphs	

____	32.	The scientific name for an organism comes from its
a.	main characteristic.	c.	order and class.	
b.	kingdom and phylum.	d.	genus and species.	

____	33.	The division of organisms into groups or classes based on characteristics is
a.	taxonomy.	c.	life science.	
b.	classification.	d.	biology.	

____	34.	The science of describing, classifying, and naming organisms is
a.	taxonomy.	c.	life science.	
b.	classification.	d.	organization.	

____	35.	A pine tree is a member of the kingdom
a.	Animalia.	c.	Protista.	
b.	Fungi.	d.	Plantae.	

____	36.	Which of the following is not considered by scientists when classifying organisms?
a.	backbones	c.	feathers	
b.	how humans use the organism	d.	hair	

____	37.	What does a dichotomous key consist of?
a.	charts and illustrations	c.	maps and graphs	
b.	a series of paired statements	d.	internet resources	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	38.	What is the scientific name for a Burchell’s zebra?
a.	Equus caballus	c.	Equus burchellii	
b.	Equus grevyi	d.	Caballus zebra	

____	39.	When bacteria reproduce by binary fission,
a.	two cells produce a third cell.	
b.	two cells produce two more cells.	
c.	one cell produces two cells.	
d.	one cell produces three or more cells.	

____	40.	What is one way bacteria help the environment?
a.	They change oxygen to a form plants can use.	
b.	They change nitrogen to a form plants can use.	
c.	They change oxygen into nitrogen.	
d.	They change nitrogen into oxygen.	

____	41.	What do chloroplasts do?
a.	capture energy from the sun	c.	eat other organisms	
b.	give the protist its shape	d.	help the protist move	

____	42.	What type of fungi forms the largest group?
a.	club fungi	c.	lichen	
b.	sac fungi	d.	imperfect fungi	

____	43.	What do chloroplasts do?
a.	capture energy from the sun	c.	give the protist shape	
b.	help in reproduction	d.	help the protist move	

____	44.	What is produced during asexual reproduction that can be easily spread by the wind?
a.	mycorrhiza	c.	spores	
b.	algae	d.	lichen	

____	45.	What is another name for a fern leaf?
a.	club moss	c.	rhizome	
b.	frond	d.	gametophyte	

____	46.	Major food crops such as corn, wheat, and rice are
a.	nonvascular plants.	c.	gymnosperms.	
b.	seedless plants.	d.	angiosperms.	

____	47.	What could happen if a plant’s phloem does not work correctly?
a.	Photosynthesis will not take place.	
b.	The plant might be short of water.	
c.	The plant might be short of food.	
d.	The plant will not be able to dissolve minerals.	

____	48.	Which of the following takes water and minerals from the roots to the shoot?
a.	phloem	c.	flowers	
b.	xylem	d.	leaves	

____	49.	In seed plants, sperm form inside of
a.	seeds.	c.	gametophytes.	
b.	sporophytes.	d.	pollen.	

____	50.	Unlike seedless plants, seed plants
a.	have gametophytes that form within the reproductive structures of the sporophyte.	
b.	live in only a few parts of the world.	
c.	protect their young.	
d.	need water to help the sperm and egg meet.	

____	51.	What plant cell part captures energy from the sun to make food?
a.	chloroplasts	c.	cell membranes	
b.	cell walls	d.	vacuoles	

____	52.	The energy that starts the process of photosynthesis comes from
a.	sunlight.	c.	the breakdown of sugar in the plants.	
b.	grana.	d.	chlorophyll that is taken from the soil.	

____	53.	The seeds of some plants are protected by
a.	fruits.	c.	leaves.	
b.	flowers.	d.	stems.	

____	54.	What is the green pigment in plants called?
a.	chloroplast	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	chlorophyll	d.	grana	

	Use the image below to answer the following questions. 

____	55.	What is the name and function of the structure labeled B?
a.	cuticle: It protects the plant from water loss.	
b.	vascular tissue: It conducts water and other materials throughout the plant.	
c.	guard cell: It opens and closes the stoma.	
d.	stoma: It allows carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and allows oxygen and water to exit the leaf.	

____	56.	When a bee does the “waggle dance” to direct other bees toward a food source, what is it using to communicate?
a.	singing	c.	body language	
b.	alarm pheromones	d.	grooming	

____	57.	Which of the following could be a result of living in a group?
a.	spotting predators more slowly	c.	hunting and killing smaller prey	
b.	being less visible to predators	d.	hunting and killing larger prey	

____	58.	Which of the following is NOT an example of innate behavior?
a.	a puppy’s tendency to chew	c.	a newborn whale’s ability to swim	
b.	a bee’s tendency to fly	d.	a human’s ability to tie shoes	

____	59.	What do we call the transfer of signals and messages that animals use in social interaction?
a.	competition	c.	food and water	
b.	courtship	d.	communication	

____	60.	What kind of circulatory system do most mollusks have?
a.	radial	c.	open	
b.	closed	d.	segmented	

____	61.	What does a sponge use to digest food particles?
a.	gut	c.	osculum	
b.	collar cells	d.	thorax	

____	62.	What do jellyfish and coral both have?
a.	tube feet	c.	stinging cells	
b.	skeletons	d.	wings	

____	63.	What helps reptiles to reduce their water loss?
a.	They have thick, dry skin.	c.	They are endotherms.	
b.	They can walk on land.	d.	They breathe through their skin.	

____	64.	How do most reptiles breathe?
a.	with their gills	c.	with their lungs	
b.	through their skin	d.	through the amniotic sac	

____	65.	Which of the following is NOT a group of reptiles?
a.	frogs and toads	c.	lizards and snakes	
b.	crocodiles and alligators	d.	tuataras	

____	66.	What saclike organ in amphibians takes oxygen from the air and exchanges it with carbon dioxide from the blood?
a.	pharyngeal pouch	c.	gill	
b.	lung	d.	swim bladder	

____	67.	When a female fish lays unfertilized eggs in the water and the male drops sperm on them, it is called
a.	external fertilization.	c.	embryonic fertilization.	
b.	internal fertilization.	d.	amniotic fertilization.	

____	68.	What is the purpose of the bird’s air sacs?
a.	to allow the bird to breathe	
b.	to take the place of lungs	
c.	to maintain a constant supply of air	
d.	Air sacs serve no purpose in modern bird species.	

____	69.	What keeps whales and other mammals that live in cold oceans warm?
a.	fur	c.	thick skin	
b.	blubber	d.	scales	

____	70.	This large muscle helps to bring air into a mammal’s lungs.
a.	diaphragm	c.	mammary	
b.	endotherm	d.	protein	

____	71.	Young wasps are eating the tomato hornworm that is their host. What is this an example of?
a.	commensalism	c.	parasitism	
b.	mutualism	d.	competition	

____	72.	What living things make food from sunlight?
a.	consumers	c.	decomposers	
b.	parasites	d.	producers	

____	73.	Bears eat fruits such as berries and animals such as fish. They hibernate in the winter. They give birth to live young. Which of these terms applies to bears?
a.	They are decomposers.	
b.	They are at the bottom of the energy pyramid.	
c.	They have a mutualistic relationship with berries.	
d.	They are consumers.	

____	74.	If you made a chart showing all the organisms living in the local lake, with arrows drawn between the various organisms showing who ate what, what kind of chart would you have made?
a.	energy pyramid	c.	food web	
b.	food chain	d.	ecosystem chart	

____	75.	As loggers take more trees out of a forest, there are fewer places for a certain type of bird to build a nest. What is this an example of?
a.	a predator attacking prey	
b.	the forest's carrying capacity becoming smaller	
c.	a food web becoming smaller	
d.	a symbiotic relationship	

Use the image below to answer the following questions.

____	76.	What does the arrow between the grasshopper and the coyote represent?
a.	energy flowing from producers to consumers	
b.	energy flowing from consumers to producers	
c.	energy flowing from the coyote to the grasshopper	
d.	energy flowing from the grasshopper to the coyote	

____	77.	Which of the following is a biotic factor in a biome?
a.	kinds of birds	c.	types of rocks	
b.	amount of rainfall	d.	bodies of water	

____	78.	The speed of water is an important abiotic factor in a freshwater ecosystem because
a.	a tributary has different plants than a river.	
b.	faster water has a higher salt content.	
c.	animals must adapt so they are not washed away.	
d.	animals cannot live in fast-moving water.	

____	79.	Which of the following is a key abiotic factor in rivers?
a.	number of fish	c.	amount of salt	
b.	speed of water	d.	how animals adapt	

____	80.	What can farmers use to prevent the harming of beneficial insects?
a.	spray insecticides	c.	new pesticides	
b.	natural pest control	d.	nonaerosol insecticides	

____	81.	The number and variety of organisms in a given area at a certain time is called
a.	overpopulation.	c.	biodiversity.	
b.	ecology.	d.	kingdoms.	

____	82.	The process of recovering valuable or useful materials from waste or scrap is called
a.	renewing.	c.	reliving.	
b.	recycling.	d.	reducing.	

____	83.	Three ways to conserve resources are reusing, recycling, and
a.	rebuilding.	c.	reducing.	
b.	rethinking.	d.	renewing.	

____	84.	Which chemicals destroy protective ozone?
a.	PCBs	c.	radioactive wastes	
b.	CFCs	d.	carbon dioxide and oxygen	

____	85.	What may cause acne?
a.	damage to the genetic material in skin	c.	too much oil produced by the skin glands	
b.	a lack of oil produced by the skin glands	d.	too much exposure to ultraviolet light	

____	86.	Skin cancer is caused by damage to skin cells’
a.	genetic material.	c.	nail roots.	
b.	follicles.	d.	lunula.	

____	87.	What does the esophagus do?
a.	It moves food from the pharynx to the urethra.	
b.	It moves food from the small intestine to the large intestine.	
c.	It moves food from the pharynx to the stomach.	
d.	It moves food from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.	

____	88.	Which of the following is NOT a true statement about nephrons?
a.	They are tiny filters in the kidneys.	
b.	They remove urea from the blood.	
c.	They produce urine.	
d.	They are tiny blood vessels in the kidneys.	

____	89.	What does the liver store?
a.	urine	c.	nutrients	
b.	toxins	d.	bile	

____	90.	When your cells need energy, they send signals to the brain. The signals make you feel
a.	thirsty.	c.	hungry.	
b.	hot.	d.	sweaty.	

____	91.	Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive tract?
a.	esophagus	c.	liver	
b.	small intestine	d.	mouth	

____	92.	Which of the following carry information between the body and the central nervous system?
a.	skin cells	c.	cells	
b.	nerves	d.	tissues	

____	93.	A female’s eggs are produced in which organ?
a.	the uterus	c.	the ovary	
b.	the vagina	d.	the fallopian tube	

____	94.	A man who does not produce enough healthy sperm usually
a.	has hepatitis.	c.	has cancer.	
b.	is infertile.	d.	is an identical twin.	

____	95.	Which of these is an overreaction by the immune system?
a.	antigen	c.	an infectious disease	
b.	an allergy	d.	a noninfectious disease	

____	96.	What can you do to learn more about responding to an emergency?
a.	Get more sleep.	c.	Wear a helmet.	
b.	Take a first-aid class.	d.	Study nutrition.	

____	97.	Which of the following is a health problem that is often caused by obesity?
a.	flu	c.	headache	
b.	diabetes	d.	cancer	

____	98.	Which of the following is NOT a part of kitchen safety?
a.	cleaning up spills	c.	using a stool to reach shelves	
b.	turning pot handles in	d.	keeping grease near the stove	

____	99.	In most communities, what phone number can you call for help?
a.	711	c.	911	
b.	811	d.	211	

____	100.	What should you always use when working in a lab class?
a.	a seat belt	c.	a scarf	
b.	a helmet	d.	safety equipment	

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	technology	f.	mass	
b.	volume	g.	theory	
c.	electron microscope	h.	law	
d.	scientific methods	i.	hypothesis	
e.	life science	j.	compound light microscope	

____	101.	a possible explanation for observations

____	102.	the amount of space something occupies

____	103.	used to magnify a living specimen

____	104.	set of related hypotheses supported by evidence

____	105.	the use of knowledge, tools, and materials to solve problems and accomplish tasks

____	106.	the study of living things

____	107.	a series of steps followed by scientists to solve problems

____	108.	used to produce clear and detailed images of nonliving specimens

____	109.	the amount of matter in an object

____	110.	a summary of many experimental results and observations

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	archaea	f.	organelle	
b.	cell membrane	g.	prokaryote	
c.	bacteria	h.	ribosomes	
d.	eukaryote	i.	surface area–to-volume ratio	
e.	nucleus	j.	cytoplasm	

____	111.	tiny, round organelles made of protein and other material

____	112.	the fluid inside a cell

____	113.	the reason that most cells are limited to a very small size

____	114.	a protective layer that covers the cell’s surface and acts as a barrier

____	115.	small bodies in a cell’s cytoplasm that are specialized to perform specific functions

____	116.	an organism that consists of a single cell that does not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles

____	117.	prokaryotes that include extremophiles, organisms that live in extreme conditions

____	118.	an organism made up of cells that have a nucleus enclosed by a membrane as well as membrane-bound organelles

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	cell membrane	f.	Golgi complex	
b.	cell wall	g.	lysosomes	
c.	chloroplasts	h.	mitochondrion	
d.	cytoskeleton	i.	nucleus	
e.	endoplasmic reticulum	j.	ribosomes	

____	119.	a rigid structure that gives support to a cell

____	120.	a barrier that encloses and protects the cell

____	121.	a web of proteins in the cytoplasm that keeps a cell’s membrane from collapsing

____	122.	a large organelle that produces and stores the cell’s DNA

____	123.	organelles that make proteins

____	124.	a system of folded membranes that functions as the internal delivery system of a cell

____	125.	an organelle that functions as the main power source of a cell, breaking down sugar to produce energy

____	126.	organelles in which photosynthesis takes place

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	Cenozoic	g.	mass extinction	
b.	australopithecines	h.	Homo	
c.	paleontologists	i.	Pangaea	
d.	half-life	j.	cyanobacteria	
e.	Neanderthal	k.	Homo sapiens	
f.	tectonic plates	l.	dinosaur	

____	127.	reptile type that dominated the Mesozoic era

____	128.	the era we live in today

____	129.	scientists who use fossils to study the history of life before humans

____	130.	the time it takes for half the unstable atoms in a rock sample to decay

____	131.	event that may be caused by extreme changes in climate

____	132.	what continents and oceans ride on top of

____	133.	the name for continents in one landmass surrounded by gigantic ocean

____	134.	hominid group that included erectus and halibus

____	135.	primates similar to apes, but with larger brains

____	136.	the first hominids to create sculptures, carvings, and paintings

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	endospore	f.	binary fission	
b.	eukaryote	g.	prokaryote	
c.	cyanobacteria	h.	flagella	
d.	Bacteria	i.	methane maker	
e.	Archaea	j.	heat lover	

____	137.	reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two single-celled organisms

____	138.	a type of archaea that lives in swamps and animal intestines

____	139.	hairlike parts of bacteria that help them move around

____	140.	a thick-walled spore containing genetic material and proteins that forms inside a bacterial cell

____	141.	an organism with a nucleus

____	142.	domain with the most individuals

____	143.	a single-celled organism with no nucleus

____	144.	bacteria that contain the green pigment chlorophyll

____	145.	domain whose members prefer environments with little or no oxygen

____	146.	a type of archaea that lives in ocean vents and hot springs

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	oxygen	f.	shape	
b.	lytic cycle	g.	antiviral	
c.	host	h.	virus	
d.	protein coat	i.	vaccinations	
e.	antibiotics	j.	lysogenic cycle	

____	147.	a microscopic particle that gets inside a cell and often destroys it

____	148.	a cycle in which a virus’s genes live in a host but are inactive

____	149.	the substance that protects a virus’s genetic material and helps it get inside a cell

____	150.	a way to prevent viral infections

____	151.	a cycle in which a virus attacks a host and causes it to make viruses

____	152.	something viruses cannot use

____	153.	one way viruses are grouped

____	154.	medicine that does not kill viruses

____	155.	a living thing that a virus or parasite lives on or in

____	156.	a type of medicine that keeps viruses from reproducing

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	woody stem	g.	rhizoid	
b.	stamen	h.	sepal	
c.	cell wall	i.	angiosperm	
d.	conifer	j.	stomata	
e.	monocot	k.	rhizome	
f.	taproot	

____	157.	root system with one main root

____	158.	underground stem from which new leaves and roots grow

____	159.	type of rigid stem found on trees

____	160.	structure that surrounds the cell membrane and supports the plant cell

____	161.	flowering plant that produces seeds inside a plant

____	162.	rootlike structure that holds nonvascular plants in place

____	163.	the largest group of gymnosperms

____	164.	angiosperm with one cotyledon

____	165.	tiny opening in the epidermis of a leaf where carbon dioxide enters

____	166.	modified leaf that protects the flower bud

____	167.	male reproductive structure of a flower

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	primates	g.	carnivores	
b.	related to dugongs	h.	insectivores	
c.	cetaceans	i.	flying mammals	
d.	hoofed mammals	j.	rodents	
e.	“toothless mammals”	k.	related to hares and pikas	
f.	trunk-nosed mammals	

____	168.	armadillo

____	169.	squirrel

____	170.	spider monkey

____	171.	manatee

____	172.	bat

____	173.	walrus

____	174.	rabbit

____	175.	mole

____	176.	African elephant

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	jack rabbit	g.	humpback whale	
b.	bat	h.	shrew	
c.	hippopotamus	i.	spider monkey	
d.	armadillo	j.	guinea pig	
e.	Indian elephant	k.	hyena	
f.	sea cow	

____	177.	“toothless mammals”

____	178.	insectivores

____	179.	rodents

____	180.	related to hares and pikas

____	181.	flying mammals

____	182.	carnivores

____	183.	trunk-nosed mammals

____	184.	hoofed mammals

____	185.	cetaceans

____	186.	related to manatees and dugongs

____	187.	primates

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	mammary glands	h.	down	
b.	perching birds	i.	lift	
c.	preening	j.	marsupial	
d.	diaphragm	k.	brooding	
e.	monotreme	l.	waterbirds	
f.	molting	m.	contour	
g.	gestation period	n.	water birds	

____	188.	a mammal that lays eggs

____	189.	a mammal with a pouch, such as a kangaroo, koala, or opossum

____	190.	the time between fertilization and birth, in mammals

____	191.	the organ used to feed a mammal’s young

____	192.	the muscle that helps bring air into the lungs

____	193.	the category of birds that can grasp a tree branch

____	194.	the category of birds with webbed feet or long legs

____	195.	the process of grooming and maintaining feathers, in birds

____	196.	the process of shedding feathers and growing new ones

____	197.	a soft feather that provides warmth

____	198.	a stiff outer feather that determines shape

____	199.	the upward pressure on wings

____	200.	the act of sitting on a nest to keep eggs warm

CRCT REVIEW
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS9

	2.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9

	3.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS3.c

	4.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	6.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	7.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	8.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	9.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	10.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS5.b

	11.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	12.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	14.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.b

	15.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4.b

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3

	17.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3

	18.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	19.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	20.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3

	21.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	22.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.a

	23.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9.f

	24.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS5.b

	25.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS8.c

	26.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS8.c

	27.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L5.a

	28.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	29.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	30.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	31.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	32.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	33.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	34.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1.b

	35.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	36.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1.b

	37.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1.b

	38.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	39.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	40.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	41.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	42.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	43.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	44.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	45.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	46.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3.b

	47.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.d

	48.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	49.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	50.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	51.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	52.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	53.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	54.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	55.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	56.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	57.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	58.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	59.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	60.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	61.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	62.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	63.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	64.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	65.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	66.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	67.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1

	68.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.d

	69.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	70.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L5.c

	71.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	72.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	73.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	74.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.d

	75.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.a

	76.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.a

	77.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	78.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	79.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	80.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L4

	81.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	82.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	83.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	84.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	85.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	4

	86.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2

	87.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	88.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	89.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	90.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	91.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	92.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	93.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	94.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	95.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	96.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	5

	97.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L2.a

	98.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4

	99.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	5

	100.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4

MATCHING

	101.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS3.c

	102.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.a

	103.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS1.b| S7CS8.c	

	104.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS9.f

	105.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9

	106.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7CS9

	107.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.a

	108.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7CS3.c

	109.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS1.b| S7CS8.c	

	110.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7CS9

	111.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	112.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	113.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	114.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	115.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	116.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	117.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4

	118.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5

	119.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	120.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	121.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	122.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	123.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	124.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	125.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	126.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	127.	ANS:	L	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	128.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	129.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	130.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	131.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	132.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	133.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	134.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	135.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	136.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	137.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	138.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	139.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	140.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	141.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	142.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	143.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	144.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	145.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	146.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.a

	147.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	148.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	149.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	150.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	151.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	152.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	153.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	154.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	155.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	156.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	157.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	158.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.d

	159.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	160.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	161.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	162.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	163.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	164.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.d

	165.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	166.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	167.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	168.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	169.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	170.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	171.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	172.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	173.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	174.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	175.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	176.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	177.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	178.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	179.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	REF:	4	OBJ:	2
STA:	S7L1

	180.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	181.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	182.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	183.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	184.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	185.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	186.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	187.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	188.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	189.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	190.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	191.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	192.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	193.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	194.	ANS:	L	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	195.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	196.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	197.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	198.	ANS:	M	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	199.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	200.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1