CRCT REVIEW 2

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	Scientists have divided the history of the Earth into large divisions called
a.	years.	c.	weeks.	
b.	eras.	d.	fossils.	

____	2.	An example of a rapid change in conditions on Earth is
a.	continents moving.	c.	organisms adapting.	
b.	tectonic plates shifting.	d.	a meteor striking Earth.	

____	3.	When scientists identify the age of a fossil they
a.	place it in a time period	c.	decide if it’s valuable.	
b.	cut it up.	d.	decide what continent it belongs on.	

____	4.	Cyanobacteria used sunlight to make
a.	nitrogen.	c.	cells.	
b.	eukaryotes.	d.	food.	

____	5.	Before an ozone layer formed to reduce radiation, life existed
a.	in the air.	c.	in oceans and underground.	
b.	in trees and plants.	d.	on land.	

____	6.	The largest mass extinction was in the
a.	Precambrian time.	c.	Paleozoic era.	
b.	Cenozoic era.	d.	Mesozoic era.	

____	7.	What animals have been dominant in the Cenozoic era?
a.	insects	c.	single-celled organisms	
b.	birds	d.	mammals	

____	8.	Opposable thumbs help primates because with them they can
a.	grow fingernails.	c.	grip and hold things.	
b.	have claws.	d.	dig.	

____	9.	Eyes at the front of the head are important for primates because they provide
a.	varying eye colors.	c.	three-dimensional vision.	
b.	a difficult target.	d.	eyelids.	

____	10.	The earliest hominids have been found in
a.	Asia.	c.	Africa.	
b.	North America.	d.	Antarctica.	

____	11.	Which is an example of Earth’s conditions slowly changing?
a.	meteors striking	c.	continents moving	
b.	volcanoes erupting	d.	a mass extinction	

____	12.	How did cyanobacteria change life on earth?
a.	They produced food from light.	c.	They became extinct.	
b.	They moved onto land.	d.	They turned into a gas.	

____	13.	What gas layer protects Earth from the sun’s radiation?
a.	the sedimentary layer	c.	the oxygen layer	
b.	the nitrogen layer	d.	the ozone layer	

____	14.	What time period is called the Age of Mammals?
a.	the Precambrian time	c.	the Paleozoic era	
b.	the Mesozoic era	d.	the Cenozoic era	

____	15.	Which group of hominids lived at the same time as Homo sapiens?
a.	australopithecines	c.	Homo habilis	
b.	Homo erectus	d.	Neanderthals	

____	16.	Which of the following is characteristic of all primates?
a.	bipedalism	c.	binocular vision	
b.	vertical pelvis	d.	opposable big toes	

____	17.	Which group of hominids that lived in Europe and Asia disappeared from the fossil record about 30,000 years ago?
a.	Homo erectus	c.	Homo sapiens	
b.	australopithecines	d.	Neanderthals	

____	18.	Past mass extinctions most likely occurred as a result of
a.	oxygen pollution.	c.	sudden global climate change.	
b.	ozone destruction.	d.	exposure to UV radiation.	

____	19.	The first organisms to appear on Earth did not need
a.	oxygen.	c.	cells.	
b.	nitrogen.	d.	chemicals.	

____	20.	What are traces of living things that are preserved in rock called?
a.	oxygen	c.	sediments	
b.	fossils	d.	dinosaurs	

____	21.	What do scientists think life developed from?
a.	simple chemicals	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	oxygen	d.	a nucleus	

____	22.	What reptiles of the Mesozoic era are the best known?
a.	newts	c.	snakes	
b.	salamanders	d.	dinosaurs	

____	23.	What kind of animal is the Cenozoic era famous for?
a.	reptiles	c.	mammals	
b.	birds	d.	fish	

____	24.	If you see a fossil fish in a museum that is labeled one of the earliest fish known, what era is it probably from?
a.	Paleozoic	c.	Mesozoic	
b.	Cenozoic	d.	Precambrian	

____	25.	What type of fossils would be least likely to be found in Antarctica?
a.	tropical plants	c.	sharks	
b.	trilobites	d.	hominids	

____	26.	How many domains are recognized today?
a.	four	c.	three	
b.	five	d.	ten	

____	27.	The division of organisms into groups or classes based on characteristics is
a.	taxonomy.	c.	life science.	
b.	classification.	d.	biology.	

____	28.	The science of describing, classifying, and naming organisms is
a.	taxonomy.	c.	life science.	
b.	classification.	d.	organization.	

____	29.	Carolus Linnaeus is known for
a.	founding the science of taxonomy.	
b.	discovering retractable claws.	
c.	identifying the characteristics of rare species.	
d.	discovering Tyrannosaurus rex.	

____	30.	The eight levels of classification, from general to specific, are
a.	domain, kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.	
b.	domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species.	
c.	domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.	
d.	domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus, species.	

____	31.	A pine tree is a member of the kingdom
a.	Animalia.	c.	Protista.	
b.	Fungi.	d.	Plantae.	

____	32.	What can you find out by working through a dichotomous key in order?
a.	the identity of an organism	
b.	how long slime mold can live	
c.	when a species first appeared on Earth	
d.	how many birds migrate north to south in winter	

____	33.	An example of a simple animal is
a.	a fern.	c.	an insect.	
b.	a mold.	d.	a sponge.	

____	34.	Members of kingdom Animalia depend on bacteria and fungi because bacteria and fungi
a.	do not perform photosynthesis.	c.	use sunlight to produce sugar.	
b.	recycle nutrients in dead organisms.	d.	are useful for animal habitats.	

____	35.	Scientists classify organisms based on their
a.	likes and dislikes.	c.	age.	
b.	numbers in the wild.	d.	characteristics.	

____	36.	What do scientists use to refer to organisms because common names can create confusion?
a.	Latin names	c.	scientific names	
b.	nicknames	d.	first names	

____	37.	The three most general levels of classification, from general to specific, are
a.	kingdom, family, and class.	c.	kingdom, domain, and order.	
b.	domain, kingdom, and phylum.	d.	kingdom, domain, and family.	

____	38.	What do scientists look at to classify living things?
a.	their age	c.	their characteristics	
b.	their likes and dislikes	d.	their diseases	

____	39.	What is the science of taxonomy?
a.	naming plants and animals	
b.	describing, classifying, and naming living things	
c.	measuring living things	
d.	taking pictures of living things	

____	40.	In the past, what two groups did scientists use to classify all living things?
a.	living and nonliving	c.	plant and animal	
b.	tall and short	d.	large and small	

____	41.	How many levels of classification do scientists use today?
a.	two	c.	six	
b.	four	d.	eight	

____	42.	What makes up a living thing’s scientific name?
a.	its genus and species	c.	its class and order	
b.	its kingdom and phylum	d.	its family and genus	

____	43.	What is the scientific name for an Asian elephant?
a.	Elephas asian	c.	Elephas biggus	
b.	Elephas maximus	d.	Elephas rex	

____	44.	Why do the Chácabo people of Bolivia use classification?
a.	to understand what animals live in other places as well as Bolivia	
b.	to understand how far certain birds can fly	
c.	to understand which plants are useful and which are not	
d.	to understand how many people like to eat fish	

____	45.	What does a dichotomous key consist of?
a.	charts and illustrations	c.	maps and graphs	
b.	a series of paired statements	d.	internet resources	

____	46.	The seahorse found along the Atlantic Coast of the United States has the scientific name Hippocampus hudsonius. What is the seahorse’s species name?
a.	fish	c.	Hippocampus	
b.	horse	d.	hudsonius	

____	47.	How many kingdoms of bacteria are there today?
a.	one	c.	three	
b.	two	d.	four	

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____	48.	What is the scientific name for a horse?
a.	Equus caballus	c.	Equus burchellii	
b.	Equus grevyi	d.	Equus horse	

____	49.	When bacteria reproduce by binary fission,
a.	two cells produce a third cell.	
b.	two cells produce two more cells.	
c.	one cell produces two cells.	
d.	one cell produces three or more cells.	

____	50.	What organisms can live where nothing else lives?
a.	viruses	c.	cyanobacteria	
b.	bacteria	d.	archaea	

____	51.	Which of the following is NOT a shape of bacteria?
a.	crystal	c.	cocci	
b.	spirilla	d.	bacilli	

____	52.	Which of the following is NOT a shape of viruses?
a.	crystal	c.	sphere	
b.	spirilla	d.	cylinder	

____	53.	What is one way bacteria help the environment?
a.	They change oxygen to a form plants can use.	
b.	They change nitrogen to a form plants can use.	
c.	They change oxygen into nitrogen.	
d.	They change nitrogen into oxygen.	

____	54.	What type of medicine is used to kill bacteria?
a.	antiviral	c.	vaccine	
b.	insulin	d.	antibiotic	

____	55.	Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?
a.	using microorganisms to clean up an oil spill	
b.	using bacteria to make yogurt	
c.	creating plants that are resistant to bacteria	
d.	adding nitrogen-fixing bacteria to the soil before planting crops	

____	56.	Which of the following is an example of genetic engineering?
a.	using microorganisms to clean up an oil spill	
b.	using bacteria to make yogurt	
c.	creating plants that are resistant to bacteria	
d.	adding nitrogen-fixing bacteria to the soil before planting crops	

____	57.	Which do antiviral medicines do?
a.	kill bacteria	c.	stop viruses from reproducing	
b.	kill viruses	d.	cure viral infections	

____	58.	Which of the following is NOT a common shape of bacteria?
a.	spirilla	c.	bacilli	
b.	cocci	d.	crystal	

____	59.	A cell with no nucleus is called a(n)
a.	prokaryote.	c.	host.	
b.	endospore.	d.	eukaryote.	

____	60.	The genetic material of the virus is inactive within the host cell during
a.	the lysogenic cycle.	c.	binary fission.	
b.	the lytic cycle.	d.	the lactic cycle.	

____	61.	Which of the following is a shape of bacteria?
a.	sphere	c.	crystal	
b.	bacilli	d.	cylinder	

____	62.	Which of the following is a shape of viruses?
a.	crystal	c.	spirilla	
b.	cocci	d.	bacilli	

____	63.	Most protists are made of how many cells?
a.	four	c.	two	
b.	three	d.	one	

____	64.	What do chloroplasts do?
a.	capture energy from the sun	c.	eat other organisms	
b.	give the protist its shape	d.	help the protist move	

____	65.	What process do some protists use to make their own food?
a.	decomposition	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	photogenesis	d.	fission	

____	66.	What process do single-celled protists use in asexual reproduction to make more than two offspring from one parent?
a.	conjugation	c.	multiple fission	
b.	binary fission	d.	single-cell fission	

____	67.	What do you call the process where a single-celled protist asexually divides into two cells?
a.	conjugation	c.	multiple fission	
b.	binary fission	d.	single-cell fission	

____	68.	Which of the following provides most of the world’s oxygen?
a.	phytoplankton	c.	amoebas	
b.	seaweed	d.	zooflagellates	

____	69.	What type of fungi forms the largest group?
a.	club fungi	c.	lichen	
b.	sac fungi	d.	imperfect fungi	

____	70.	What do protists NOT have that other eukaryotic organisms have?
a.	a nucleus	c.	chlorophyll	
b.	specialized tissues	d.	chloroplasts	

____	71.	What do chloroplasts do?
a.	capture energy from the sun	c.	give the protist shape	
b.	help in reproduction	d.	help the protist move	

____	72.	What process do some protists use to make their own food?
a.	decomposition	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	photogenesis	d.	conjugation	

____	73.	Which type of organism makes its own food?
a.	protist producer	c.	decomposer	
b.	heterotroph	d.	parasite	

____	74.	Most of the world’s seaweeds are what type of protist producer?
a.	brown algae	c.	green algae	
b.	diatoms	d.	red algae	

____	75.	What are eukaryotic heterotrophs with rigid cell walls and no chlorophyll called?
a.	algae	c.	spores	
b.	hyphae	d.	fungi	

____	76.	What is produced during asexual reproduction that can be easily spread by the wind?
a.	mycorrhiza	c.	spores	
b.	algae	d.	lichen	

____	77.	Which of the following is a heterotroph that is so different from other organisms that it was placed in its own kingdom?
a.	algae	c.	spore	
b.	fungi	d.	mold	

____	78.	When fungi live on the roots of plants, how are they obtaining nutrients?
a.	by budding	c.	by photosynthesis	
b.	by conjugation	d.	by mutualism	

____	79.	What do amoebas use pseudopodia for?
a.	eating and sexual reproduction	
b.	moving and sexual reproduction	
c.	moving and eating	
d.	sexual reproduction and photosynthesis	

____	80.	Most protists are made of how many cells?
a.	four	c.	two	
b.	three	d.	one	

____	81.	What term means that protists’ cells have a nucleus?
a.	eukaryotic	c.	chloroplasts	
b.	nucleusatic	d.	microscopic	

____	82.	What are mobile protists sometimes called?
a.	protozoans	c.	foraminiferans	
b.	radiolarians	d.	paramecia	

____	83.	Which of the following is true of all protists?
a.	They are smaller than bacteria.	c.	They are complex organisms.	
b.	They have a nucleus.	d.	They are descended from plants.	

____	84.	How are dinoflagellates and euglenoids different from the other plantlike protists?
a.	They can photosynthesize.	c.	They have no pigments.	
b.	They can move.	d.	They are large.	

____	85.	Which of the following is NOT characteristic of zooflagellates?
a.	They use flagella to move.	
b.	They are all parasites.	
c.	They live in the water or in a host organism.	
d.	They are all protozoa.	

____	86.	In what stage do plants make spores?
a.	gametophyte	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	sporophyte	d.	vascular	

____	87.	Gymnosperms and angiosperms both
a.	have flowers.	c.	lack seeds.	
b.	have seeds.	d.	have fruit.	

____	88.	Major food crops such as corn, wheat, and rice are
a.	nonvascular plants.	c.	gymnosperms.	
b.	seedless plants.	d.	angiosperms.	

____	89.	What is the major difference between monocots and dicots?
a.	the colors of the flowers	c.	the size of the seeds	
b.	the number of the cotyledons	d.	the scent of the flowers	

____	90.	A stem that is soft, thin, and flexible is called a
a.	woody stem.	c.	herbaceous stem.	
b.	soft stem.	d.	growth ring.	

____	91.	In the gametophyte stage, a fertilized egg grows into a
a.	spore.	c.	sporophyte.	
b.	gametophyte.	d.	sperm.	

____	92.	What could happen if a plant’s phloem does not work correctly?
a.	Photosynthesis will not take place.	
b.	The plant might be short of water.	
c.	The plant might be short of food.	
d.	The plant will not be able to dissolve minerals.	

____	93.	Which of the following takes water and minerals from the roots to the shoot?
a.	phloem	c.	flowers	
b.	xylem	d.	leaves	

____	94.	In seed plants, sperm form inside of
a.	seeds.	c.	gametophytes.	
b.	sporophytes.	d.	pollen.	

____	95.	What three parts make up a seed?
a.	young plant, pollen, rhizome	c.	spores, stored water, young plant	
b.	young plant, stored food, seed coat	d.	sporophyte, rhizoid, young plant	

____	96.	A full-grown tree is an example of a
a.	cotyledon.	c.	gametophyte.	
b.	leaf.	d.	sporophyte.	

____	97.	One function of a stem is to
a.	make food.	c.	store food.	
b.	feed insects.	d.	transport food.	

____	98.	What plants get water and nutrients from rhizoids?
a.	mosses	c.	buttercups	
b.	conifers	d.	angiosperms	

____	99.	What does xylem do?
a.	carries food	c.	carries water and minerals	
b.	dissolves minerals and food	d.	grows longer roots	

____	100.	Gas enters and exits the stems or leaves of a plant through the
a.	stomata.	c.	roots.	
b.	chloroplasts.	d.	vascular tissue.	

____	101.	The process in which a sperm cell fuses with an egg in the ovary is called
a.	germination.	c.	pollination.	
b.	fertilization.	d.	asexual reproduction.	

____	102.	After fertilization takes place in a flower, the ovary develops into a
a.	vegetable.	c.	fruit.	
b.	seed.	d.	leaf.	

____	103.	What does a seed need to germinate?
a.	air, wind, and water	c.	sugar, water, and soil	
b.	water, air, and warm temperatures	d.	soil, water, and sun	

____	104.	If a plant gets light from only one direction, the shoots will likely
a.	grow straight upward.	c.	grow toward the light source.	
b.	grow away from the light source.	d.	stop growing altogether.	

____	105.	If a plant is tipped on its side, the shoots will likely
a.	turn and grow upward.	c.	grow to the side the plant is tipped.	
b.	grow toward the ground.	d.	stop growing altogether.	

____	106.	When the seasons change, some plants respond to changes in
a.	the amount of oxygen in the leaves.	c.	the length of day and night.	
b.	soil quality.	d.	gravity.	

____	107.	A plant that grows toward the light is showing
a.	a positive tropism.	c.	gravitropism.	
b.	a negative tropism.	d.	seasonal change.	

____	108.	Root tips of most plants grow toward the center of the Earth. This action is a
a.	negative phototropism.	c.	negative gravitropism.	
b.	positive phototropism.	d.	positive gravitropism.	

____	109.	Leaves turn orange and yellow in fall because
a.	they have more orange and yellow pigment in the fall.	
b.	their green chlorophyll breaks down.	
c.	longer days cause the color change.	
d.	orange and yellow are easier to see in the cool weather.	

____	110.	Stomata are important because they
a.	begin photosynthesis.	
b.	break down chlorophyll.	
c.	play a role in gas exchange.	
d.	feed the plant.	

____	111.	Plants that bloom when nights are long are called
a.	long-day plants.	c.	evergreen plants.	
b.	short-day plants.	d.	deciduous plants.	

____	112.	The seeds of some plants are protected by
a.	fruits.	c.	leaves.	
b.	flowers.	d.	stems.	

____	113.	The root tips of most plants show
a.	negative phototropism.	c.	positive phototropism.	
b.	positive gravitropism.	d.	negative gravitropism.	

____	114.	By which process do plants make their own food from carbon dioxide and water?
a.	cellular respiration	c.	chlorophyll	
b.	transpiration	d.	photosynthesis	

____	115.	What is the green pigment in plants called?
a.	chloroplast	c.	photosynthesis	
b.	chlorophyll	d.	grana	

	Use the image below to answer the following questions. 

____	116.	What is the name and function of the structure labeled B?
a.	cuticle: It protects the plant from water loss.	
b.	vascular tissue: It conducts water and other materials throughout the plant.	
c.	guard cell: It opens and closes the stoma.	
d.	stoma: It allows carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and allows oxygen and water to exit the leaf.	

____	117.	What is the name and function of the structure labeled C?
a.	cuticle: It protects the plant from water loss.	
b.	vascular tissue: It conducts water and other materials throughout the plant.	
c.	guard cell: It opens and closes the stoma.	
d.	stoma: It allows carbon dioxide to enter the leaf and allows oxygen and water to exit the leaf.	

____	118.	What is an organism at an early stage of development called?
a.	embryo	c.	vertebrate	
b.	invertebrate	d.	consumer	

____	119.	What is a collection of similar specialized cells called?
a.	organ	c.	invertebrate	
b.	embryo	d.	tissue	

____	120.	What do animals use to get from one place to another?
a.	tissues	c.	movement	
b.	sex cells	d.	embryos	

____	121.	What kind of behavior is being demonstrated when a killer whale teaches its baby to hunt?
a.	seasonal cycle	c.	courtship	
b.	estivation	d.	parenting	

____	122.	What are the daily cycles that control an animal’s schedule?
a.	estivation	c.	seasonal cycles	
b.	circadian rhythms	d.	migration	

____	123.	Animals that live in groups
a.	are in far more danger from predators than animals that live alone are.	
b.	never get sick.	
c.	can only hunt very small animals.	
d.	have to move around when they run out of food.	

____	124.	Animals that live in groups
a.	must compete for food and mates.	
b.	are difficult for predators to find.	
c.	are especially protected from disease.	
d.	cannot spot predators quickly.	

____	125.	All animals have eukaryotic cells and are
a.	invertebrates.	c.	asexual.	
b.	vertebrates.	d.	multicellular.	

____	126.	Walking is an example of
a.	an innate behavior.	c.	a survival behavior.	
b.	a seasonal behavior.	d.	a learned behavior.	

____	127.	A dolphin’s whistles and clicks are examples of communication using
a.	chemicals.	c.	touch.	
b.	sound.	d.	sight.	

____	128.	How might animals living in a group deal with a food shortage?
a.	by migrating	c.	by shedding	
b.	by fasting	d.	by reproducing	

____	129.	Which statement about communication between animals is false?
a.	Animals use communication to find mates.	
b.	Communication helps animals find their food.	
c.	Communication helps animals avoid enemies.	
d.	Communication occurs only between members of the same species.	

____	130.	A killer whale teaching its offspring to hunt is an example of
a.	estivation.	c.	courtship.	
b.	defensive behavior.	d.	parenting.	

____	131.	Which is NOT an example of how animals might deal with a food shortage?
a.	migration	c.	reproduction	
b.	estivation	d.	hibernation	

____	132.	A group of tissues that carry out a special function of the body is a(n)
a.	embryo.	c.	behavior.	
b.	organ.	d.	consumer.	

____	133.	Which of the following is an example of chemical communication?
a.	budding	c.	hibernation	
b.	pheromones	d.	estivation	

____	134.	What kind of communication is a dolphin using when it whistles or clicks?
a.	chemicals	c.	touch	
b.	sound	d.	sight	

____	135.	What kind of communication is body language?
a.	touch	c.	sight	
b.	sound	d.	chemical	

____	136.	What is it called when an adult animal takes care of its baby?
a.	estivation	c.	courtship	
b.	hibernation	d.	parenting	

____	137.	What kind of communication are chimpanzees using when they groom each other?
a.	sight	c.	courtship	
b.	touch	d.	chemical	

____	138.	How are innate behaviors inherited?
a.	through learned behavior	c.	through seasonal cycles	
b.	through genes	d.	through hibernation	

____	139.	What is an area occupied by an animal or group of animals called?
a.	a territory	c.	a distraction	
b.	a pheromone	d.	a competition	

____	140.	What do we call the transfer of signals and messages that animals use in social interaction?
a.	competition	c.	food and water	
b.	courtship	d.	communication	

____	141.	Which list contains organisms that are NOT animals?
a.	giraffes, grizzly bears, starfish	c.	slugs, kangaroos, monkeys	
b.	fish, spiders, birds	d.	cactuses, bacteria, mushrooms	

____	142.	Which body plan does a flatworm have?
a.	asymmetry	c.	bilateral symmetry	
b.	radial symmetry	d.	segmented symmetry	

____	143.	What is the body of a roundworm like?
a.	long, slim, and round	c.	spongelike	
b.	fat and thick	d.	tentacled	

____	144.	What kind of circulatory system do squids have?
a.	radial	c.	open	
b.	closed	d.	segmented	

____	145.	What do the bodies of all annelid worms have in common?
a.	They are segmented.	c.	They are flat.	
b.	They are round.	d.	They have radial symmetry.	

____	146.	What are the three main body parts of all arthropods?
a.	head, thorax, and abdomen	c.	guts, wings, and coelom	
b.	antenna, wings, and pincer	d.	legs, arms, and guts	

____	147.	Which of the following structures support an arthropod and help it to move?
a.	endoskeleton	c.	antenna	
b.	mandible	d.	an exoskeleton	

____	148.	Which of these animals do not have mandibles?
a.	centipedes	c.	wasps	
b.	spiders	d.	butterflies	

____	149.	What type of symmetry do adult echinoderms have?
a.	asymmetry	c.	bilateral symmetry	
b.	radial symmetry	d.	segmented symmetry	

____	150.	What symmetry do echinoderm larvae have?
a.	asymmetry	c.	bilateral	
b.	radial	d.	segmented	

____	151.	What is a water vascular system?
a.	series of canals filled with fluid	c.	closed circulatory system	
b.	open circulatory system	d.	nerve ring	

____	152.	What kind of echinoderms have long, slim arms?
a.	brittle stars and basket stars	c.	sea lilies and feather stars	
b.	sea urchins and sand dollars	d.	sea cucumber	

____	153.	What makes sea cucumbers different from other echinoderms?
a.	their feet	c.	their wormlike shape	
b.	their arms	d.	their spines	

____	154.	What controls the movement of a sea star’s arms?
a.	radial nerves	c.	spines	
b.	tube feet	d.	sieve plate	

____	155.	Which of the following is NOT a stage of complete metamorphosis?
a.	egg	c.	adult	
b.	larvae	d.	nymph	

____	156.	Which of the following is NOT sensed by a tarantula’s bristles?
a.	pressure	c.	chemicals	
b.	motion	d.	an image	

____	157.	The word arthropod means
a.	“large brain.”	c.	“spiny skin.”	
b.	“jointed foot.”	d.	“paralyzing toxin.”	

____	158.	The organs of many invertebrates are contained in a body cavity called the
a.	coelom.	c.	visceral mass.	
b.	gut.	d.	chelicerae.	

____	159.	Which of the following is a bundle of nerve cells?
a.	gut	c.	ganglion	
b.	tube foot	d.	eye	

____	160.	What do jellyfish and coral both have?
a.	tube feet	c.	stinging cells	
b.	skeletons	d.	wings	

____	161.	What do mollusks use to move?
a.	bristles	c.	a foot	
b.	mantle	d.	gills	

____	162.	What helps a sea star to move, eat, and breathe?
a.	simple nervous system	c.	endoskeleton	
b.	water vascular system	d.	closed circulatory system	

____	163.	What is a mandible?
a.	claw	c.	mouthpart	
b.	foot	d.	nerve cell	

____	164.	How do most reptiles breathe?
a.	with their gills	c.	with their lungs	
b.	through their skin	d.	through the amniotic sac	

____	165.	Which of the following is NOT a group of reptiles?
a.	frogs and toads	c.	lizards and snakes	
b.	crocodiles and alligators	d.	tuataras	

____	166.	An animal that can stay warm in cold weather because it can control its own body temperature is said to be
a.	an endotherm.	c.	cold-blooded.	
b.	an ectotherm.	d.	an ecological indicator.	

____	167.	How do amphibians breathe?
a.	through their gills and lung	
b.	through their gills and skin	
c.	through their pharyngeal pouches and lungs	
d.	through their lungs and skin	

____	168.	Because amphibians are sensitive to changes in the environment, they are often called
a.	ecological indicators.	c.	endotherms.	
b.	allantois.	d.	double-life indicators.	

____	169.	Which of the following is NOT a group of reptiles?
a.	tuataras	c.	caecilians	
b.	turtles and tortoises	d.	snakes and lizards	

____	170.	Which group of fishes is characterized by being strong swimmers, having keen senses, and being expert predators?
a.	bony	c.	vertebrate	
b.	cartilaginous	d.	jawless	

____	171.	Which of the following is NOT a group of chordates?
a.	notochords	c.	lancelets	
b.	tunicates	d.	vertebrates	

____	172.	What is the embryonic structure in chordates that is usually replaced by a backbone?
a.	hollow nerve cord	c.	pharyngeal pouch	
b.	notochord	d.	tail	

____	173.	What saclike organ in amphibians takes oxygen from the air and exchanges it with carbon dioxide from the blood?
a.	pharyngeal pouch	c.	gill	
b.	lung	d.	swim bladder	

____	174.	Which meat-eating reptile with a narrow head and pointed snout spends most of its time in the water?
a.	lizard	c.	crocodile	
b.	alligator	d.	tuatara	

____	175.	Which is NOT a common body part of a chordate?
a.	pharyngeal pouch	c.	notochord	
b.	lancelet	d.	hollow nerve cord	

____	176.	Which is NOT a trait of cartilaginous fishes?
a.	They are strong swimmers.	c.	They are expert predators.	
b.	They have a bony skeleton.	d.	They have oily livers.	

____	177.	Which is NOT a trait of bony fishes?
a.	They have a swim bladder.	c.	They are eel-like.	
b.	They can rest without swimming.	d.	They have a bony skeleton.	

____	178.	What is the thin-walled sac of skin that surrounds a frog’s vocal cords called?
a.	vocal sac	c.	swim bladder	
b.	vibrating sac	d.	scales	

____	179.	What is the purpose of the bird’s air sacs?
a.	to allow the bird to breathe	
b.	to take the place of lungs	
c.	to maintain a constant supply of air	
d.	Air sacs serve no purpose in modern bird species.	

____	180.	What is a bird’s keel?
a.	the large breastbone that anchors flight muscles	
b.	a rigid skeleton	
c.	bones that shape the wings	
d.	part of the bird’s digestive system	

____	181.	What keeps whales and other mammals that live in cold oceans warm?
a.	fur	c.	thick skin	
b.	blubber	d.	scales	

____	182.	Which of the “toothless mammals” really have no teeth?
a.	anteaters	
b.	armadillos	
c.	sloths	
d.	None of the “toothless mammals” have teeth.	

____	183.	What is the purpose of a camel’s hump?
a.	It cools the camel in the hot desert.	
b.	It stores water for dry periods.	
c.	It is extra muscle that enables the camel to travel for long distances.	
d.	It is stored fat that provides energy when food is scarce.	

____	184.	The newborn kangaroo is about the size of a
a.	bumblebee.	c.	cat.	
b.	hummingbird.	d.	small dog.	

____	185.	What is the only food the koala eats?
a.	insects	c.	eucalyptus leaves	
b.	mice	d.	bamboo shoots	

____	186.	This large muscle helps to bring air into a mammal’s lungs.
a.	diaphragm	c.	mammary	
b.	endotherm	d.	protein	

____	187.	Which of the following characteristics are unique to reproduction in mammals?
a.	reproduce sexually; have mammary glands; care for young until grown	
b.	reproduce asexually; care for young for one month	
c.	reproduce asexually; have mammary glands; care for young for life	
d.	reproduce sexually; do not have mammary glands; care for young until the next birth	

____	188.	Animals whose body temperature stays constant because of internal chemical changes are
a.	reptiles.	c.	ectotherms.	
b.	endotherms.	d.	amphibians.	

____	189.	To which of the following categories does an osprey belong?
a.	flightless birds	c.	water birds	
b.	perching birds	d.	birds of prey	

____	190.	Early mammals did not depend on their surroundings to keep warm. Early mammals were
a.	endotherms.	c.	dinosaurs.	
b.	ectotherms.	d.	reptiles.	

____	191.	Which of the following characteristics are shared by all mammals?
a.	long legs, mammary glands, good vision	
b.	good vision, diaphragms, long necks	
c.	poor hearing, constant body temperature, live births	
d.	mammary glands, diaphragms, constant body temperature	

____	192.	Many marsupials are endangered by non-native species and
a.	habitat destruction.	c.	changing climate.	
b.	acid rain.	d.	wolves.	

____	193.	Monotremes include the echidna and the
a.	marsupial.	c.	pinniped.	
b.	blue-footed booby.	d.	platypus.	

____	194.	Which of the following placental mammals have opposable thumbs, forward-facing eyes, and a large brain?
a.	cetaceans	c.	carnivores	
b.	insectivores	d.	primates	

____	195.	What is the upward force on a flying bird’s wings?
a.	gravity	c.	wind	
b.	pressure	d.	lift	

____	196.	How do birds keep their eggs warm?
a.	by nesting	c.	by preening	
b.	by brooding	d.	by hatching	

____	197.	Which of the following is a water bird?
a.	robin	c.	blue-footed booby	
b.	kiwi	d.	owl	

____	198.	How do birds of prey use their curved beaks and sharp claws?
a.	to build strong nests	c.	to fight enemies	
b.	to catch and eat food	d.	to grasp branches	

____	199.	How does a mammal’s brain differ from the brains of other animals of the same size?
a.	The mammal’s brain is smaller.	
b.	The mammal’s brain is bigger.	
c.	The mammal’s brain is not as complex.	
d.	The mammal’s brain does not stay alert at night.	

____	200.	What is the only native North American marsupial?
a.	monotreme	c.	raccoon	
b.	platypus	d.	opossum	

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	endospore	f.	binary fission	
b.	eukaryote	g.	prokaryote	
c.	cyanobacteria	h.	flagella	
d.	Bacteria	i.	methane maker	
e.	Archaea	j.	heat lover	

____	201.	reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two single-celled organisms

____	202.	a type of archaea that lives in swamps and animal intestines

____	203.	hairlike parts of bacteria that help them move around

____	204.	a thick-walled spore containing genetic material and proteins that forms inside a bacterial cell

____	205.	an organism with a nucleus

____	206.	domain with the most individuals

____	207.	a single-celled organism with no nucleus

____	208.	bacteria that contain the green pigment chlorophyll

____	209.	a type of archaea that lives in ocean vents and hot springs

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	woody stem	g.	rhizoid	
b.	stamen	h.	sepal	
c.	cell wall	i.	angiosperm	
d.	conifer	j.	stomata	
e.	monocot	k.	rhizome	
f.	taproot	

____	210.	root system with one main root

____	211.	underground stem from which new leaves and roots grow

____	212.	type of rigid stem found on trees

____	213.	structure that surrounds the cell membrane and supports the plant cell

____	214.	flowering plant that produces seeds inside a plant

____	215.	rootlike structure that holds nonvascular plants in place

____	216.	angiosperm with one cotyledon

____	217.	tiny opening in the epidermis of a leaf where carbon dioxide enters

____	218.	modified leaf that protects the flower bud

____	219.	male reproductive structure of a flower

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	primates	g.	carnivores	
b.	related to dugongs	h.	insectivores	
c.	cetaceans	i.	flying mammals	
d.	hoofed mammals	j.	rodents	
e.	“toothless mammals”	k.	related to hares and pikas	
f.	trunk-nosed mammals	

____	220.	armadillo

____	221.	squirrel

____	222.	spider monkey

____	223.	manatee

____	224.	bat

____	225.	cattle

____	226.	walrus

____	227.	mole

____	228.	porpoise

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	jack rabbit	g.	humpback whale	
b.	bat	h.	shrew	
c.	hippopotamus	i.	spider monkey	
d.	armadillo	j.	guinea pig	
e.	Indian elephant	k.	hyena	
f.	sea cow	

____	229.	“toothless mammals”

____	230.	insectivores

____	231.	rodents

____	232.	related to hares and pikas

____	233.	flying mammals

____	234.	carnivores

____	235.	trunk-nosed mammals

____	236.	hoofed mammals

____	237.	cetaceans

____	238.	related to manatees and dugongs

____	239.	primates

Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.	mammary glands	h.	down	
b.	perching birds	i.	lift	
c.	preening	j.	marsupial	
d.	diaphragm	k.	brooding	
e.	monotreme	l.	waterbirds	
f.	molting	m.	contour	
g.	gestation period	n.	water birds	

____	240.	a mammal that lays eggs

____	241.	a mammal with a pouch, such as a kangaroo, koala, or opossum

____	242.	the time between fertilization and birth, in mammals

____	243.	the organ used to feed a mammal’s young

____	244.	the muscle that helps bring air into the lungs

____	245.	the category of birds that can grasp a tree branch

____	246.	the category of birds with webbed feet or long legs

____	247.	the process of grooming and maintaining feathers, in birds

____	248.	the process of shedding feathers and growing new ones

____	249.	a stiff outer feather that determines shape

____	250.	the act of sitting on a nest to keep eggs warm

CRCT REVIEW 2
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	2.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	3.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	4.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	6.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	7.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	8.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	9.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	10.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	11.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	12.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	14.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	15.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	17.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	18.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	19.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	20.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	21.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	22.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	23.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	24.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	25.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	3	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	26.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	27.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	28.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1.b

	29.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	30.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	31.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	32.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1

	33.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	34.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	35.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1.b

	36.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	37.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	38.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	39.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	40.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1.b

	41.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	42.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	43.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	44.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	45.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1.b

	46.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	47.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1.b

	48.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1.b

	49.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2

	50.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	51.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	52.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	53.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	54.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.a

	55.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.a

	56.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	57.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	58.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	59.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	60.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	61.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	62.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	63.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	64.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	65.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	66.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	67.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	68.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	69.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.b

	70.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	71.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	72.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	73.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	74.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	75.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	76.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	77.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	78.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	79.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	80.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	81.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.a| S7L4.b	

	82.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	83.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	84.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	85.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	86.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	87.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	88.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L3.b

	89.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.d

	90.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	91.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.d

	92.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.d

	93.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	94.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	95.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	96.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	2	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.d

	97.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	98.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	99.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	100.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	101.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	102.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	103.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3

	104.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	105.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	106.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	107.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	108.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	109.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3

	110.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	111.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2

	112.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2

	113.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1

	114.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	115.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	116.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	117.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3

	118.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	119.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	120.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	121.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.c

	122.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L4.c

	123.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	124.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	125.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	126.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	127.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	128.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	129.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	130.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	131.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	132.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	133.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.d

	134.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	135.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	136.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4.d

	137.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4.c

	138.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L4

	139.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L4

	140.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	141.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	142.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L2

	143.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L2

	144.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	145.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2

	146.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	147.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	148.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	149.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	150.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	151.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	152.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	153.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	154.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2

	155.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	156.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2

	157.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	158.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	159.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	160.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	161.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2

	162.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	163.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	164.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	165.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	166.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	167.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	168.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1| S7L5.a		

	169.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	170.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L1

	171.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	172.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	173.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	174.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	175.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	176.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L1

	177.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	5	STA:	S7L1

	178.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1| S7L5.a		

	179.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.d

	180.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	181.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	182.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	183.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	184.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	185.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	186.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L5.c

	187.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	188.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	189.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L5.c

	190.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	191.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	192.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1

	193.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	2

	194.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L2.d

	195.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	196.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	4	STA:	S7L1

	197.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	198.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	199.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	200.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	3

MATCHING

	201.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	202.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	203.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	204.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	205.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	206.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	207.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	208.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	209.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.a

	210.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	211.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.d

	212.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L2.b| S7L1		

	213.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	214.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	215.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	216.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L2.d

	217.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L3.b

	218.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L3.b

	219.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	3	STA:	S7L1

	220.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	221.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	222.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	223.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	224.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	225.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	226.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	227.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	228.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	229.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	230.	ANS:	H	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	231.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	REF:	4	OBJ:	2
STA:	S7L1

	232.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	233.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	234.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	235.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	236.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	237.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	238.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	239.	ANS:	I	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	240.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	241.	ANS:	J	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	5
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L3.b

	242.	ANS:	G	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	4
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	243.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	244.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	3
OBJ:	2	STA:	S7L1

	245.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1

	246.	ANS:	L	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	2
OBJ:	1

	247.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	248.	ANS:	F	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	249.	ANS:	M	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1

	250.	ANS:	K	PTS:	1	DIF:	1	REF:	1
OBJ:	1	STA:	S7L1